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1 PERFORMANCE Basic Weight: Empty acft with all its basic Equipment plus declared quantity of unusable fuel/oil. Variable Load: weight of crew / crew baggage / removable units (catering loads) Variable Load = APS – Basic Weight APS: Aircraft Prepared for Service APS = Basic Weight + Variable Load Payload: Passengers & Cargo Disposable Load: weight of payload and fuel Disposable Load = TOW – APS Ramp Weight (RW): gross acft weight prior to taxi. RW must be within its structural max weight limit (Certificate of Airworthiness) RW = TOW + Fuel for start & taxi MTOW: Max Takeoff Weight Max gross weight of the acft permitted for takeoff. Performance Limited MTOW: field distance (short RWY) obstacle clearance MLW: Max Landing Weight Max gross weight of the acft permitted for landing. Performance Limited MLW: field distance (short RWY) obstacle clearance ZFW: Zero Fuel Weight Wing loading structural max weight ZFW = Payload + APS ZFW = MTOW – Fuel Weight Max ZFW determines the max permissible payload Total Arm = Total Moment Total Weight The Zero Fuel Mass (ZFW) and the Dry Operating Mass (DOW): a) differ by the mass of usable fuel. b) differ by the value of the traffic load mass. c) are the same value. d) differ by the sum of the mass of usable fuel plus traffic load mass. Difference between ZFW and DOW: Dry Operating Weight + Traffic Load = Zero Fuel Weight DOW+ Traffic Load = ZFW ZFW – DOW = Traffic Load 2 BLOCK FUEL is the TOTAL FUEL required for the flight (Taxi + Trip + Contingency + Alternate + Reserve). AIRPLANE LIMITING WEIGHTS VERIFICATION When performing the fuel and payload calculations, the airplane structural and performance limiting weights must be observed. An easy way of guaranteeing that no limit is exceeded is by limiting the takeoff weight to the lower of the following: a) Maximum Structural Weight, Performance limited takeoff weight or Pavement strength limited weight, whichever is lower; b) Maximum Structural Landing Weight or Performance Limited Landing Weight, plus the Trip Fuel; or c) Maximum Zero Fuel Weight plus the Takeoff Fuel. 3 Given that, determine the actual take-off mass: Max structural take-off mass (MTOM): 146.000kg Max structural landing mass (MLM): 93.900kg Max zero fuel mass (MZFM): 86.300kg + Trip fuel: 27.000kg + Taxi fuel: 1.000kg - Contingency fuel: 1.350kg + Alternate fuel: 2.650kg + Final reserve fuel: 3.000kg + MZFM: 86.300 + Trip: 27.000 + Contingency: 1.350 + Alternate: 2.650 + Reserve: 3.000 + Actual take-off mass: 120.300kg We cannot exceed any of these limits so the maximum possible take-off mass for this flight is the lowest of the three, which is 120.300kg. Prior to departure the medium range twin jet acft is loaded with maximum fuel of 20100 litres at a fuel density (specific gravity) of 0.78. Using the following data: - Performance Limited Takeoff Mass: 67200 kg - Performance Limited Landing Mass: 54200 kg - Dry Operating Mass: 34930 - Taxi Fuel: 250 kg - Trip Fuel: 9250 kg - Contingency and holding Fuel: 850 kg - Alternate Fuel: 700 kg The maximum permissible traffic load is: a) 16470 kg b) 18040 kg c) 12840 kg d) 13090 kg An acft is to depart an airfield where the performance limited takeoff mass is 89200 kg. Certified maximum masses are as follows: - Ramp (taxi) mass 89930 kg - Maximum Takeoff Mass: 89430 kg - Maximum Landing Mass: 71520 kg - Actual Zero Fuel Mass: 62050 kg Fuel on board at ramp: - Taxi Fuel: 600 kg - Trip Fuel: 17830 kg - Contingency, final reserve and alternate: 9030 kg If the Dry Operating Mass is 40970 kg, the traffic load that can be carried on this flight is: a) 21080 kg b) 21500 kg c) 21220 kg d) 20870 kg 4 AIRPLANE DATUM Airplane Datum is a plane perpendicular to the fuselage centerline from where all arm measurements are taken. A location in the aeroplane which is identified by a number designating its distance from the datum is known as: a) Station. b) Moment. c) MAC. d) Index. MEAN AERODYNAMIC CHORD (MAC) Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC) is the chord of an imaginary rectangular airfoil with the same area of the actual wing and which produces the same resulting force vectors of the actual wing. The LEMAC defines the distance of the Leading Edge of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord from the Airplane Datum. 5 CENTER OF GRAVITY (CG) This is the position where the mass of the aircraft is considered concentrated for balance purposes. The CG position can be calculated according to the formula: Usually, the CG position is referred to in terms of %MAC, as it is represented in the figure bellow: The CG position, referred in terms of %MAC, can be obtained, according to the formula: Where BA is the balance arm of the airplane´s CG. AFT CG (nose-up enroute attitude) To achieve MAX RANGE Stabilizer remain streamlined to airflow (no relevant drag produced) 6 TAKEOFF DISTANCE DEFINITIONS: TODA: Takeoff Distance Available Length of the T/O run available + Clearway TODA = Usable RWY + Clearway Length of available usable RWY + length of Clearway available, within which the acft initiates a transition to climbing flight attains Screen Height at a speed not less than TOSS/V2 (Takeoff Safety Speed). TODA = TORA + CLEARWAY TORA: Takeoff Run Available Length of RWY declared available and suitable for ground run of an acft taking off. Physical length of RWY (usable length of RWY available) TORR: Takeoff Run Required Measured run (length) required to unstick speed (Vr) + 1/3 of the airborne distance between the unstick and screen height (safety margin: 15%) TODR: Takeoff Distance Required Measured distance required to accelerate to the rotation speed (Vr), thereafter effect a transition to a climbing flight and attain a screen height at a speed not less than the Takeoff Safety Speed (TOSS) or V2. (Safety Margin: 15%) The take-off distance required increases a) due to slush on the runway. b) due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack. c) due to head wind because of the drag augmentation. d) due to lower gross mass at take-off. 7 Screen Height: minimum height achieved over the RWY before the end of the Clearway should an engine failure occurs on takeoff (End of Takeoff Distance). Dry Conditions: 35ft. (OEI) Wet Conditions: 15ft. (OEI Propeller acft: 50ft. ALL ENGINES TAKEOFF DISTANCE Is the distance from the start of takeoff up to the point at which the airplane is 35 feet above the takeoff surface, with All Engines Operating (AEO). ACCELERATE-GO DISTANCE (AGD) The accelerate-go distance (AGD) is the distance necessary to accelerate the airplane to VEF with All Engines Operating (AEO), and then continue the takeoff with One Engine Inoperative (OEI) to a screen height of 35 ft above the runway surface under the assumption of the critical engine failure at VEF. ACCELERATE-STOP DISTANCE (ASD) The accelerate-stop distance (ASD) is the greater of: • Distance required to accelerate the airplane to V1, maintain this speed for a period of 2 seconds, and then decelerate to a complete stop with All Engines Operating (AEO). • Distance required to accelerate the airplane to VEF with AEO, then accelerate to V1 with One Engine Inoperative (OEI), maintain this speed for a period of 2 seconds, and then decelerate to a complete stop (OEI). Note: Modern certification rules require that aircraft acceleration should be considered during the 2 seconds period mentioned above, instead of constant speed. EMB-135/140/145 certification uses the old rules, i.e., 2 seconds of constant speed at V1. The aircraft deceleration considers the use of Maximum Manual Braking and Speedbrakes extended. Reverse thrust is not considered for dry runway accelerate-stop,distance, but may be used for wet or contaminated runways. The calculated accelerate-stop distances in the Airplane Flight Manual (AFM) account for demonstration times for transitioning the aircraft to the rejected takeoff configuration (idle thrust, full brakes and full spoilers). The following time intervals are considered: • Time to recognize the critical engine failure that occurred at VEF and take the first action to bring the aircraft to a stop (throttles to idle). Demonstrated in flight tests, but may not be less than 1 second. • 2 seconds interval at V1. • Time interval between throttles to idle and full brakes application, demonstrated in flight tests. • Time interval between full brakes application and spoilers extension, also demonstrated in flight tests. Note: Calculated ASD considers that the engine thrust is kept constant during the engine spool down time (time interval between throttles to idle and actual idle thrust). RESA: RUNWAY END SAFETY AREA An area symmetrical about the extended runway centre line and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway” [ICAO Annex 14] Runway End Safety Areas (RESA) are a formal means to limit the consequences when aeroplanes overrun the end of a runway during a landing or a rejected take off, or undershoot the intended landing runway. They are constructed to provide a cleared and graded area which is, as far as practicable, clear of all but frangible objects. It should have a surface which will enhance the deceleration of aircraft in the overrun case http://www.skybrary.aero/index.php/Rejected_Take_Off8 but should not be such as to hinder the movement of rescue and fire fighting vehicles or any other aspect of emergency response activity. Minor aircraft runway overruns and undershoots are a relatively frequent occurrence. Most data sources point to significant occurrences on average once a week worldwide and suggest that runway excursions overall are the fourth largest cause of airline fatalities. It has been stated by the FAA Airport Design Division that approximately 90% of runway undershoot or overruns are contained within 300 metres of the runway end. The contribution which RESAs can make to a reduction in the consequences of such over-runs has frequently been demonstrated as has the avoidable hazardous outcomes where they have not been present. The Takeoff Field Length required is the longer of: a) Accelerate-Go Distance (AGD): b) Accelerate-Stop Distance (ASD): c) 115% of the All Engines Takeoff Distance: 9 RWY STOPWAY: length of an unprepared surface at the end of the runway in the direction of the takeoff that is capable of supporting an acft if the acft has to be stopped during a takeoff run. The Stopway is an area beyond the runway end with the following characteristics: • must be as wide as the runway; • centered around the extended centerline of the runway; • must be able to support the airplane weight, without causing structural damage to the airplane; • designated by the airport authorities for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff. RWY CLEARWAY: Length of an obstacle-free area at the end of the RWY in the direction of the takeoff. Minimum dimension: 75% either side of the extended RWY centerline. Can be water / area which acft make a portion of its initial climb to screen height (35ft). The clearway is an area beyond the runway end with the following characteristics: • minimum 500 feet wide; • centrally located around the extended centerline of the runway; • must be under control of airport authorities; • no obstacle protruding above 1.25% slope plane, except threshold lights located at the sides of runway with a height lower than 26 feet. Takeoff field length calculation allow the aircraft to reach the 35 ft screen height position above the clearway area, provided at least one half of the flare distance between VLOF and V2 is made above the runway. The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where: a) A landing acft can be stopped only in emergency; b) A landing acft can be stopped if overcoming the end of the runway; c) An acft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off; d) An acft taking-off or landing can be stopped; 10 The STOPWAY is an area which allows an increase only in: a) the accelerate-stop distance available. b) the take-off run available. c) the take-off distance available. d) the landing distance available. Which of the following statements is correct ? a) If a clearway or a stopway is used, the liftoff point must be attainable at least at the end of the permanent runway surface. b) A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an aborted take-off. c) An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off. d) A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off. CLEARWAY: a defined rectangular area on the ground or water at the end of a runway in the direction of takeoff and under control of the competent authority selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aircraft may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height. The length of a CLEARWAY may be included in: a) the accelerate-stop distance available. b) the take-off run available. c) the distance to reach V1. d) the take-off distance available. EMDA: Emergency Distance Available ASDA: Accelerate Stop Distance Available Length of T/O Run Available + Stopway Physical length of RWY + length of Stopway Available EMDA/ASDA = usable RWY + Stopway available EMDA/ASDA = TORA + Stopway ED/EDR: Emergency Distance/Required Distance required to accelerate during takeoff run on all engines to critical speed V1 and abort takeoff (RTO). ED = ASDA EDR cannot exceed EMDA (Safety Margin: 10%) NO USE OF REVERSE THRUST IS TAKEN INTO ACCOUNT 11 BALANCED FIELD: TODA = EMDA (ASDA) When the end of the Clearway is the end of the Stopway and the acft achieves Screen Height over the end of the RWY in all cases. The lower the TODA or EMDA, the more balanced is the field. BALANCED FIELD LENGTH Balanced Field Length conditions means that the Accelerate-Go distance is equal to the Accelerate-Stop distance. If an engine failure occurs, in a typical operational situation where the actual airplane weight is less than the Field Length Limit Weight, the pilot can either continue or reject the takeoff (depending on when the engine failure occurred relative to V1), and achieve 35 ft or stop before reaching the end of the runway. Although the takeoff was planned using “balanced V1”, there was excess runway available for both the GO and STOP cases. In either case, the associated V1 speed is correctly referred to as a “Balanced V1 Speed”. However, many pilots assume that they are field length limited because they are using balanced V1 speed, which is obviously not the case. UNBALANCED FIELD: TODA > EMDA TORA (RWY Length) does not feature in balanced field calculations Balanced Field calculations determines de MTOW Purpose of using a BALANCED FIELD calculation is to optimize V2 climb performance (2nd segment) with a corrected V2/Vr speed from a single performance calculation/chart. UNBALANCED FIELD LENGTH Standard - For a standard takeoff (balanced V1), the horizontal distance that the airplane uses to climb to 35 ft is equal to the distance required to stop the airplane from V1. Clearway - If clearway is available, the point where the airplane reaches 35 ft can be over that clearway. This allows a higher weight because of the greater distance available to reach 35 ft. The higher,weight requires a lower V1 to still be able to stop on the available runway. In this case we say that the Field Length and V1 is unbalanced. Stopway - If stopway is available, the distance to stop the airplane from V1 is increased. This permits a higher takeoff weight, but it requires a higher V1 to ensure that the airplane can still climb to 35 ft by the end of the runway. In this case we say that the Field Length and V1 is unbalanced. 12 Stopway may extend beyond the Clearway if length of the Clearway is limited because of an obstruction (does not limit the STOPWAY, only need to be as wide as the RWY) within 75m of the RWY/Stopway centerline. TAKEOFF SPEED DEFINITIONS V1, VR and V2 are indicated airspeeds (IAS) and does the pilot use the speeds during takeoff. The other speeds are certification speeds used for takeoff performance calculations. These certification speeds are necessary to make sure that the operational speeds are safe from the standpoint of controllability, braking and tire speed. These constraints are all common sense. Take VLOF £ VMAX TIRE, for example. This is to ensure that ground roll does not exceed the tire limit; or V1min £ V1: this grants that, should an engine fail close to V1, directional control can be maintained if the pilot elects to continue the take off; or 1.1VMCA V2: this grants that adequate engine-out directional control exists in the airborne part of the take off. And so on. 13 CRITICAL SPEED: lowest possible speed on a MLTE ACFT at a constant power setting and configuration at which the pilot is able to maintain a constant heading after failure of an OFF-CENTER engine Vef: Engine Failure Speed – The speed at which the critical engine is assumed to become inoperative. May not be less than Vmcg. What is the highest speed to abort a takeoff? V1 Vmcg: Minimum Control Speed on the Ground Speed at and above which it is possible to maintain directional control of the acft around the normal/vertical axis by use of RUDDER to maintain RWY heading. The speed during the takeoff ground run at which, when the critical engine is made suddenly inoperative and if the takeoff is continued, it is possible to maintain directional control of the airplane using primary aerodynamic controls only (nose wheel steering not allowed), without deviating from the runway centerline by more than 30 ft. V1min – Minimum V1 – The speed at which the aircraft will be after the pilot recognizes the critical engine failure that occurred at Vef and takes the first action to bring the aircraft to a stop. V1: Decision Speed in event of an ENGINE FAILURE During the takeoff roll, at which is possible to continue the takeoff and achieve the screen height within normal T/O or to bring the acft to a full stop within Emergency Distance Available (EMDA/ASDA). V1 is the speed by which the decision to reject a takeoff must have been made. Below V1: abort T/O if engine failure Above V1: continue T/O if engine failure V1 range: between Vmcg – Vmbe Min. Vmcg Max. Vmbe 14 VMCG ≤ V1 ≤ Vr/Vmbe V1 cannot be less than Vmcg / cannot be greater than Vr or Vmbe V1 is selected to ensure it is: • Greater than or equal to V1min • Less than or equal to VR • Less than or equal VMBE Weight Affect V1 Field length is limiting: the greater the acft weight, the lower is the V1 speed. Lower V1 speed provides a greater stopping distance while ensuring that V1 remains greater than Vmcg and Vmu. Field length is not limiting: the greater the acft weight, the higher is the V1 speed, providing V1 remains less than Vmbe speed and the field length emergency stopping distance is not compromised WET V1: max speed for abandoning a T/O on contaminated RWY. Improves stopping capabilities (Final Stop Point) back to the dry conditions level but DEGRADES the T/O chances with a reduced screen height in the event of a T/O being continued. DRY: MAX V1 WET: MIN V1 WET V1 = DRYV1 – 10kts / WET V1 < V1 Wet RWY: stop distance increases due to ability to break. The takeoff run on a wet runway is the greater of—(i) The horizontal distance along the takeoff path from the start of the takeoff to the point at which the airplane is 15 feet above the takeoff surface, achieved in a manner consistent with the achievement of V2 before reaching 35 feet above the takeoff surface, as determined under §25.111 for a wet runway The takeoff run on a dry runway is the greater of—*(i) The horizontal distance along the takeoff path from the start of the takeoff to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the airplane is 35 feet above the takeoff surface, as determined under § 25.111 for a dry runway; SCREEN HEIGHT AT END OF RUNWAY In order not to excessively penalize the operators when operating on wet, slippery or contaminated runways, JAA allows a screen height of 15 ft at the end of the takeoff distance and accelerate-go distance, and clear the obstacles by 15 ft (net path), instead of 35 ft of the dry runway performance. WET, CONTAMINATED AND SLIPPERY RUNWAYS Wet Runway: is defined as a thoroughly soaked pavement, shiny in appearance and depth less than 1/8 inch (3 mm) of water. A wet runway is not considered a contaminated runway. Until 1998 the FAA did not require wet runway accountability, but it is now required for airplanes certified post FAR 25 Amendment 25-92, i.e., applicable for the ERJ-170/190. JAA requires wet runway performance accountability for all aircraft models. Contaminated Runway: a runway is considered as contaminated when more than 25% of the surface to be used is covered by standing water more than 1/8 inch (3 mm) deep. Runways covered by snow and slush are also considered contaminated, depending on the snow/slush depth, as it will be seen later. 15 Slippery Runway: a runway is considered slippery if it has an accumulation of compacted snow or ice, with decreased braking efficiency during aircraft deceleration. Retarding forces during aircraft acceleration (caused by precipitation drag) are negligible on slippery runways. Slippery and contaminated performance accountability are required by JAR, but not by FAR. FAA allows the operators to use it at their discretion (see FAA AC 91-6A and Draft AC 91-6B). Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be a) only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes. b) lower. c) higher. d) unaffected. If the runway coverage requirements above are not met, but if contaminants are lying on that portion of the runway where the high speed part of the takeoff roll will occur, it may be appropriate to consider the runway contaminated (or slippery/wet). For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is correct? a) Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off performance. b) A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off, even if the performance data for contaminated runway is available. c) The performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of calculation, only a few values are verified by flight tests. d) The greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off mass, the more V1 has to be decreased to compensate for decreasing friction. With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of the following statements is correct? a) Screen height cannot be reduced. b) The screen height can be lowered to reduce the mass penalties. c) When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is sufficient to maintain the same margins on the runway length. d) In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used. Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct? a) In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used. b) Screen height reduction cannot,be applied because of reduction in obstacle clearance. c) A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight penalties. d) The use of a reduced Vr is sufficient to maintain the same safety margins as for a dry runway. Contaminated RWY (ICE/RAIN): For a given acft weight on a contaminated RWY the Emergency Distance Required (EDR) is INCREASED because of a REDUCED BRAKING ABILITY. Also a contaminated RWY has a slower acceleration, therefore the TAKEOFF RUN REQUIRED (TORR) is increased, which limits the stopping distance available if T/O field length is limited. Screen Height is reduced for a WET V1 due to a portion of the airborne distance being added to the ground run as a result of increased ground run. Vmbe: Max Brake Energy Max speed on the ground from which a stop can be accomplished within the energy capabilities of the brakes. 16 During brakes application, kinetic energy is transformed into heat energy. The brakes must be able to absorb this heat energy. If more heat energy is generated than the brakes are able to absorb, they will overheat and can be destroyed. Therefore, there is a maximum speed for full braking to a complete stop. This speed is the maximum brake energy speed (VMBE). VMBE depends on the takeoff weight, ambient temperature, ambient pressure, runway slope and wind component along the runway. When the optimum V1 has to be reduced in order not to exceed VMBE, there is degradation on the takeoff limited weight. Brake energy capacity limits the acft MTOW given the ambient aerodrome Pressure Altitude, Temperature, Wind, RWY Slope conditions so that V1 does not exceed Vmbe, to ensure that the acft brake system has sufficient energy to dissipate and stop the acft inertia from V1. If V1 speed exceeds max. brake energy (Vmbe) then the acft TOW has to be reduced until V1 ≤ Vmbe. Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the : a) temperature of the hydraulic fluid. b) pressure of the hydraulic fluid. c) pressure of the pneumatic tires. d) temperature of the brakes. Vr: Rotation Speed Pilot initiates rotation to achieve V2 at the Screen Height Even with OEI Vr cannot be less than 1.05 Vmca / 1.1 or 1.05 Vmu Vr ≥ V1 NEVER LESS THAN V1 If pilots underestimate their weight, they will calculate a lower speed than is necessary to provide the lift for takeoff. This means that when they rotate, the plane doesn't have enough airspeed yet to create enough lift to take off. So instead of leaving the ground before fully pitching up, the tail strikes the runway. If a pilot inserts 14.500kg on FMC instead of 15.500kg, the acft will achieve the “wrong V1/Vr” and will not lift-off, causing a possible tail-strike. VMU: Minimum Demonstrated Unstick Possible to get airborne on all engines and to climb out without hazard (Unstick – decolar/despegue) The speed at which at and above it the aircraft can safely lift off the ground and continue the takeoff without showing any hazardous characteristics. VMU is normally defined when the elevator has enough power to rotate the aircraft to an attitude that it can get airborne. An aircraft is defined as geometry limited when the tail contacts the ground before the attitude that would generate enough lift to get airborne is reached. In this case, the aircraft will have the tail skidding the ground until it accelerates to a higher speed at which the geometry limited attitude provides enough lift to get airborne. Vmax tire: Maximum Tire Speed – The maximum ground speed for which the tires were structurally certified. Above VMAX TIRE the strength limits of the tires are exceeded and they may not resist to the centrifugal forces (caused by high wheel spinning) they are subject to. Vlof: Lift-off Speed - The speed at which the airplane becomes airborne (i.e., no contact with the runway). VLOF cannot be less than 1.10 VMU (All Engines Operating, AEO) or 1.05 VMU (One Engine Inoperative, OEI), except for geometry limited aircraft where VLOF cannot be less than 1.08 VMU (AEO) or 1.04 VMU (OEI). In addition, VLOF cannot be greater than VMAX TIRE. 17 Vs: Stall Speed Speed at which the airflow over the wings will stall. Stall speeds varies with acft WEIGHT & CONFIGURATION Va: Maneuvering Speed Airspeed at which max. elevator deflection causes the stall to occur at the airframe´s load factor limit. Vmca: Minimum Control Speed in the Air T/O & Climb Configuration Possible to maintain directional control of the acft around the normal/vertical axis by use of Rudder. Vmcg/a: relates to the minimal directional (heading) control speed on the ground or in the air, at which the turning moment produced by the vertical tailplane with max. rudder deflection is sufficient to balance the yawing moment of the acft nose when the acft loses an off-center engine (asymmetrical power). YAWING MOMENT = ASYMMETRICAL THRUST X NOSE TO CG ARM TURNING MOMENT = RUDDER TO CG ARM X WEIGHT (AIR LOAD FORCE) MOMENT is the turning effect/force of a weight around the Datum. Product of the Weight x Arm. Speed determines the aerodynamic force/weight over the vertical tailplane. The greater the speed, the greater is the rudder turning moment and the greater is the directional control for a given atmospheric condition (density) weight is a product of airspeed. Vmcg/a speeds vary with the CG position Vmcg ≤ V1 Vmca ≤ V2 The mass of an item multiplied by its distance from the datum is it´s MOMENT. Moment (balance) arms are measured from a specific point to the body station at which the mass is located. That point is known as a) the datum. b) the focal point. c) the axis. d) the centre of gravity of the aeroplane. Center of Gravity (CG): The point through which the total weight of body acts. CG = TOTAL MOMENT MOMENT = WEIGHT X ARM TOTAL MASS BEST CG POSITION FOR PERFORMANCE In general, the best position for fuel saving is an aft CG, since this condition results in smaller stabilizer down forces and, therefore, smaller wing lift forces. The reduction on the lift results in less drag, therefore reducing fuel consumption. Some airplanes have an automatic system to maintain CG as aft as possible, in order to optimize fuel consumption. 18 Similarly to this fuel consumption analysis, an aft CG is also beneficial to takeoff performance. For this reason the certification flight tests must be performed in the most forward CG position, so that the AFM takeoff performance is conservative for any CG position located aft of the forward limit of the CG envelope. Some airplanes have a special AFM supplement with a restricted CG envelope, in order to improve the takeoff performance. Case 1: A forward CG position requires higher lift forces and moments for the same aircraft weight. Case 2: An aft CG position reduces lift required, drag and fuel consumption. The point on the acft through which gravity appears to act. 19 The Center of Gravity of a body is that point: a) Which is always used as datum when computing moments; b) Where the sum of the moments from the external forces acting on the body is equal to zero; c) Where the sum of the external forces is equal to zero; d) Through which the sum of the forces of all masses of the body is considered to act; The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is that point through which the total mass of the aeroplane is said to act. The weight acts in a direction: a) at right angles to the flight path. b) governed by the distribution of the mass within the aeroplane. c) parallel to the gravity vector. d) always parallel to the aeroplane's vertical axis. Movement of the CG is due to a change in weight: 1) Fuel Burn: most common reason for a CG movement is decrease in weight as,fuel is used in flight because of the sweep, the wing and fuel tanks housed inside cover a distance along the acft. LONGITUDINAL AXIS. As fuel/weight is reduced progressively along this axis, the weight distribution pattern changes across the acft length. 2) Passenger movement; 3) High speeds: the greater the speed, the greater is the lift created. To maintain straight and level attitude, the acft adopts a nose-down profile which is accomplished by creating lift at the tailplane, lift on the tailplane reduces weight of the tailplane section of the acft. CG outside limits: Outside forward: - Nose heavy - Increase in longitudinal stability - Increased angle of attack (higher induced drag reducing acft performance and range) - Increased stalling speed - Reduced maneuverability of acft to rotate/flare FORWARD CG: - Higher stall speed: stalling angle of attack reached at a higher speed due to increased wing loading; - Slower cruise speed: increased drag, greater angle of attack required to maintain altitude; - More stable: when angle of attack increased, the airplane tends to reduce angle of attack; longitudinal stability; - Greater back elevator pressure required: longer takeoff roll, higher approach speeds and problems with the landing flare; 20 The aft CG limit is the most critical during flight maneuvers or operation of the acft. Acft stability decreases as the CG moves AFT, and the ability of the acft to right itself after maneuvering will be correspondingly decreased. Outside aft: - Tail heavy - Longitudinally unstable (because is too tail heavy) - Horizontal tailplane will have a Short Moment Arm - Pitch control increases (light stick forces) - Decrease in angle of attack - Lower stall speed During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates much more rapidly than expected. This is an indication that: a) the centre of pressure is aft of the centre of gravity. b) the centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit. c) the aeroplane is overloaded. d) the centre of gravity is too far forward. AFT CG: - Lower stall speed: less wing loading; - Higher cruise speed: reduced drag, smaller angle of attack required to maintain altitude; - Less stable: stall and spin recovery more difficult when angle of attack is increased it tends to result in even more increased angle of attack; CG POSITION FORWARD AFT STABILITY + - STICK FORCE + - DRAG + - In cruise flight, an aft centre of gravity location will: a) decrease longitudinal static stability b) increase longitudinal static stability c) does not influence longitudinal static stability d) not change the static curve of stability into longitudinal An additional baggage container is loaded into the acft cargo compartment but is not entered into the load and trim sheet. The airplane will be heavier than expected and calculated take-off safety speeds: a) Will not be achieved; b) Will be greater than required; c) Will give reduced safety margins; d) Are unaffected but V1 will be increased; Which of the following is unlikely to have any effect on the position of the centre of gravity on an airplane in flight? a) Lowering the landing gear; b) Changing the tailplane (horizontal stabilizer) incidence angle; c) Movement of cabin attendants going about their normal duties; d) Normal consumption of fuel for a swept wing acft; 21 AFT CG POSITION REQUIRES A HIGHER VMCG/A: Turning moment acts around the CG AFT Position, the vertical tailplane rudder moment is less for a given airspeed. Requires a higher mininum control speed vmcg/a with an AFT CG. FORWARD CG will have a LONGER ARM, therefore the vertical tailplane turning moment is greater for a given speed. Acft have a LOWER VMCG/A. When loading an acft the position of CG is determined and the CG position affects the size of both the yawing and turning moments. Therefore Vmcg/a speeds vary with CG position. Vmcg/a relates to asymmetrical power configuration and guarantees directional control of the acft whenever the acft airspeed is equal to or greater than Vmcg/a. Vmcg/a relates to the mininum control speed on the ground or in the air. At and above which the vertical tailplane turning moment is dominant over the yawing moment. Directional control of the acft is guaranteed. If Vmcg is limiting for the weight of the acft, REDUCE TAKEOFF THRUST. Reduced T/O thrust gives rise to a lower Vmcg. Vmcg has to be equal to or less than V2 Directional control of the acft is essential for safe operation. In a 5kt right crosswind component behind a taking off acft: a) the runway will be clear of any hazard turbulence; b) the left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway; c) the right and left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway; d) the right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway; With an engine failure between V1 and Vr and a Max. Crosswind is best to lose UPWIND ENGINE, because the Crosswind would oppose the yawing moment of the downwind engine. 22 Crosswind will cause vortices to drift downwind of the preceding acft. A crosswind, depending on its direction, can either help to restore or aggravate the yawing moment of an aircraft with a critical failure (engine). For instance, a failed number 1 engine will cause a yaw to the left. A crosswind component from the right will apply a restoring force to the aircraft’s vertical tailplane, whereas a crosswind from the left will aggravate the yawing moment further to the left due to the turning moment experienced on the vertical tailplane (which is from right to left). Therefore, a crosswind landing is of even greater importance with a critical engine failure. The term Drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro in: a) the vertical and horizontal plane; b) the vertical plane; c) the horizontal plane; d) any plane; Lateral component of vehicle motion due to crosswind or to gyroscopic action of spinning projectile. The Gyro is DRIFTING when the axis wanders horizontally and TOPPLING when it wanders vertically. V2: Takeoff Safety Speed: achieved by the screen height in the event of an engine failure that maintains adequate directional control and climb performance properties of the acft. V2 TAKEOFF SAFETY SPEED (TOSS) V2 ≥ 1.2 x Vs / Vmca x 1.10 V2 ≥ 1.2 x Vs Vmca must be less than V2 (V2 ≥ 1.1 x Vmca) Vmca relates to the airborne directional control of the acft in the event of an off-center engine failure. V2 relates to the directional control and a minimum climb performance of the acft in the event of an engine failure. V3: all engine operating takeoff climb speed the acft will achieve at screen height. V4: all engine operating takeoff climb speed the acft will achieve by 400ft. used the lowest height where acceleration flap retraction speed is initiated. ACFT TAKEOFF/LANDING PERFORMANCE IS SUBJECT TO VARIABLES: Acft weight Acft flap setting AD pressure altitude 23 Air density / Density altitude (temperature / pressure altitude) Humidity Wind RWY length / Slope / Surface Increased acft weight results in a greater takeoff distance required (TODR) and a reduced net takeoff climb gradient. Effect of flaps on the takeoff performance (TOR/TOD) and climb performance. Swept-wing (JET): require LOW FLAP SETTING Reducing acft takeoff run required (TORR) acft reach Vloft from a shorter ground run Reducing acft takeoff distance required (TODR) acft reach screen height over a shorter distance. Max. T/O flaps may be used to reduce ground run. When field length is limiting. However CLIMB PERFORMANCE may be compromised due to an increase in drag (reduced rate of climb). Use of flap settings outside T/O range increase aerodynamic drag during ground run, causing a slower acceleration that results in increased TORR,and when airborne would degrade the climb gradient performance because of poor LIFT-DRAG RATIO that results in UNACCEPTABLE increase in TODR. Effect of flaps on the T/O ground run Large flap setting (>20°) increases aerodynamic drag during T/O ground run, causing slower acceleration. Resulting in UNACCEPTABLE INCREASE in T/O run required (TORR). Once airborne reduces Lift-Drag Ratio degrading the climb gradient performance to Unacceptable level. Principles of flap deployment on T/O performance for swept/straight wing acft is similar but the effects are much more acute for swept-wing. Use of flap deployment is more rigid on swept-wing, straight-wing acft have more flexibility and variation among different types of acft. In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to: a) 100% b) normal. c) emergency. d) on demand. 24 Oxygen systems are systems used on pressurized airplanes in : 1. an emergency in the case of depressurization. 2. an emergency in the case of the indisposition of a passenger. 3. normal use in order to supply oxygen to the cabin. 4. an emergency in the case of smoke or toxic gases. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 2, 3 b) 1,4 c) 1, 2, 4 d) 3 The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to: a) supply all the passengers in case of depressurization. b) provide the flight crew with respiratory assistance after depressurization. c) provide some passengers with additional respiratory assistance after an emergency descent following a depressurization. d) provide the cabin attendants with respiratory protection. In a pressurized aircraft, the first-aid (therapeutic) oxygen is designed to: a) give medical assistance to passengers with pathological respiratory disorders. b) protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases. c) protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurization. d) protect certain passengers, and is only carried on board for these people. On a pressurized airplane, supplemental oxygen is used to provide passengers on board with oxygen following a cabin depressurization. Supplemental oxygen is used to : a) protect a crew who fights a fire b) provide with oxygen passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurization c) assist a passenger with breathing disorders d) provide people on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurization The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurized aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is: a) 15000 ft b) 25000 ft c) 13000 ft d) 14000 ft On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with oxygen throughout the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the pressure altitude is between: a) 10000 ft and 13000 ft b) 10000 ft and 12000 ft c) 11000 ft and 13000 ft d) 11000 ft and 12000 ft 25 On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than: a) 13000 ft b) 12000 ft c) 11000 ft d) 10000 ft In the event of rapid decompression the first action for the flight deck crew is: a) done oxygen masks and ensure oxygen flow b) descent to the higher of 10000 ft or MSA c) transmit mayday call d) carry out check for structural damage AC90-101A FAA-P-8740-2 . AFS-8 (2008) Density Altitude has a significant (and inescapable) influence on acft and engine performance. HOT – HIGH – HUMID weather conditions can cause a routine takeoff or landing to become an accident in less time than it takes to tell about it. Types of altitude: Indicated Altitude: altitude shown on altimeter; True Altitude: height above Mean Sea Level (MSL); Absolute Altitude: height above Ground Level (AGL); Pressure Altitude: indicated altitude when the altimeter is set 29.92inHg or 1013hPa; Density Altitude: pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature variations; The Density Altitude: a) Is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude; b) Is used to determine the aeroplane performance; c) Is equal to the Pressure Altitude; d) Is used to establish minimum clearance of 2000ft. over mountains; HIGH DENSITY ALTITUDE = DECREASED PERFORMANCE Density Altitude is an indicator or acft Performance. The density of the air decreases with altitude. A “HIGH” density altitude means that air density is reduced which has an adverse impact on acft performance. High density altitude corresponds to reduced air density, and thus to reduced acft performance. Altitude: the higher the altitude, the less dense the air. Temperature: the warmer the air, the less dense it is. When temperature rises above the standard temperature for a given place, the density of the air is reduced (density altitude increases). Humidity: at high ambient temperatures, the atmosphere can retain high water vapor content. High density altitude and high humidity do not always go hand in hand. If high humidity does exist, however, it is wise to add 10% to your computed takeoff distance and anticipate a reduced rate of climb. Increase in DENSITY ALTITUDE results in: -increased takeoff distance; 26 -reduced rate of climb; -increased TAS (same IAS) on approach and landing; -increased landing roll distance; PRESSURE ALTITUDE AFFECT T/O PERFORMANCE: High aerodrome elevation (High Pressure Altitude) decreases an acft performance and results in an increased T/O distance required (TODR). HIGH means a decrease in performance that results in more T/O distance required or Lower TOW. Density (rho – ρ) Increase in density altitude (decrease in air density) increases the T/O distance Required (TODR). HOT & HIGH mean a decrease in performance that results in a greater (TODR) or lower (TOW). HUMIDITY / AIR DENSITY High Humidity decreases air density which decreases acft aerodynamic (Cl) and engine performance, resulting in an increased TOR/D required for a given acft weight. HOT / HIGH / HUMID = decrease in performance that results in either a greater TODR or lower TOW. An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance: a) A reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance; b) A reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance; c) An increased take-off distance and degrader initial climb performance; d) An increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance; A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance: a) A reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance; b) An increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance; c) A reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance; d) An increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance; HEADWIND: reduces T/O distance required. Permits a higher TOW for the TOR/D available. the greater the headwind, the better is the acft performance. TAILWIND: increases T/O distance required. Requires a lower TOW for the TOR/D available. The greater the tailwind, the worse is the acft performance. Effect of wind on takeoff distance/performance 27 CALCULATING T/O & LANDING FIELD LENGTH PERFORMANCE Not more than 50% of the reported HEADWIND or not less than 150% of the reports TAILWIND should be used to calculate T/O & LANDING Performance. Adjustments provide a safety margin to the reported wind that covers acceptable fluctuations of the actual wind experienced. CROSSWIND LIMITATIONS ON ACFT Acft must not takeoff,or land in a crosswind that exceeds its certified max crosswind limitation for the acft type to safeguard directly the directional & lateral control and indirectly the T/O run performance of the acft. RWY LENGTH: Length of the available RWY is one of the performance limitations that restricts the max weight of the acft. The greater the RWY length, the greater is the acceleration the acft can gain. And higher is the lift-off speed (Vr) the acft can obtain. Vr is related to acft weight, it can be seen that the longer the RWY available, the greater is the possible acft T/O weight. RWY SURFACE: Hard & Dry RWY surface allows good acceleration on the ground run and therefore reduces the T/O Run Required. For a given weight or allows a higher acft weight for a given RWY length. Grass & Wet Contaminated surfaces, acceleration is retarded on the ground, TORR is increased. RWY SLOPE: downward slope allows the acft to accelerate faster, TOR & Distance Required for a given weight are reduced or a higher max. TOW is possible for a given RWY length compared with a level RWY. Upward slope HINDERS (IMPEDE/IMPEDIR) the acft acceleration, TOR & Distance Required are increased acft Max. TOW is reduced compared with level RWY. NOT PERMITTED T/O FROM WET (CONTAMINATED) RWY: - When acft anti-skid system is inoperative - When the standing water level is above a specified limit - Any other type-specific restrictions FIELD LIMITS: Most restrictive field length available from either 1) All-engine operating RWY length 2) RWY emergency distance length available 3) One-engine inoperative RWY length Limits the acft MTOW (or MLW) so that it meets the required TOR/D performance given the ambient aerodrome conditions of pressure altitude and temperature (density) DOWNWARD SLOPE: RWY SLOPE UPWARD SLOPE: WAT (WEIGHT / ALTITUDE / TEMPERATURE) LIMITS: WAT conditions limits the acft MTOW (or MLW) so that it meets the required 2nd segment (and Missed Approach) climb gradient performance with one-engine inoperative given the ambient aerodrome conditions of pressure altitude and temperature (density). The minimum height an acft would be able to achieve at MTOW, WAT-Limited conditions with one-engine inoperative would be the circuit height (1500ft.). ASSUMED/FLEX TEMPERATURE is a performance calculation technique used to find the T/O EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio) setting for an acft actual TOW. (DERATED/REDUCED THRUST VALUE). 28 Full takeoff thrust is calculated against an acft performance limited (field length / WAT / tire / net flight path / obstacle clearance climb profile) MTOW, which is calculated from the ambient conditions of aerodrome pressure altitude and temperature. When the acft takeoff with a weight lower than the max permissible T/O weight. When this happens an ASSUMED TEMPERATURE PERFORMANCE TECHNIQUE presents a method of calculating a decreased T/O thrust that is adapted for the acft actual TOW. It is done by calculating the corresponding assumed/flexible temperature (HIGHER THAN THE ACTUAL AIR TEMP.) from the WAT performance graph by using the acft actual TOW as if it were the performance limiting MTOW against the actual aerodrome altitude to find the limiting temperature. Temperature increases as max permissible weight decreases, so you can assume a temperature at which the actual TOW would be the limiting. Then by using this calculated assumed/flexible temperature, you can calculate the acft correct T/O EPR thrust. The maximum thrust reduction permitted is 25% from the thrust rating, as per FAA AC 25-13 and JAA AMJ 25-13. In addition, this method may not be used if the runway is contaminated. For wet runways it is permitted provided wet runway performance is used. Assumed Temperature (actual acft weight) EPR is a reduced/derated thrust value from the MTOW full-thrust setting. Assumed/flex temperature setting for lower-weight acft meet the same TOR performance (same rotation point) as max thrust setting for MTOW acft. Assumed temperature can be used: - Calculate on paper the required T/O EPR; - Enter into the acft engine computer to calculate required T/O EPR; 29 Performance condition that was limiting at full thrust (field length / WAT curve / net flight path) is not necessarily the limiting condition at a reduced thrust. Derated/flex T/O should not be used when: - On icy or very slippery RWY; - Contaminated RWY; - Thrust reverse is INOP; - Anti-skid is INOP; - An increased V2 procedure is used to improve an obstacle-limited T/O weight; NET & GROSS FLIGHT PATH/PERFORMANCE GROSS PERFORMANCE: average performance that a fleet of acft should achieve if maintained satisfactorily and flown in accordance with the techniques established during flight certification and described in the acft performance manual. Defines a level of performance that any acft of the same type has a 50% chance of exceeding at any time. NET PERFORMANCE: gross performance diminished to allow for various contingencies that cannot be accounted for operationally (variations in piloting technique / temporary below-average performance). It is improbable that the Net Performance/Flight Path will not be achieved in operation, provided the acft is flown in accordance with the recommended techniques (power / attitude / speed). GROSS = AVERAGE PERFORMANCE FLEET NET = GROSS – CONTINGENCIES 30 DEPARTURE PROFILE SEGMENTS (1-4): REFERENCE ZERO: ground point at the end of the T/O distance (below Net T/O Flight Path screen height); FIRST SEGMENT: reference point (35”) to where the landing gear is retracted at constant V2 speed; SECOND SEGMENET: end of 1st segment to a gross height of at least 400” (max 1000ft AGL) at contstant V2 speed; THIRD SEGMENT: assume a level flight acceleration during which flaps are retracted in accordance with speed schedule; FOURTH/FINAL SEGMENT: from 3rd segment level-off height to a Net Height of 1500ft or more with flaps up and Max Continuous Thrust (MCT); Second segment begins a) when the landing gear is fully retracted. b) When flap retraction begins. c) When flaps are selected up. d) When acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction. During take-off the third segment begins: 31 a) when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started. b) when landing gear is fully retracted. c) when acceleration starts from VLOF to V2. d) when flap retraction is completed. CLIMB GRADIENT: The ratio in the same units, expressed as a percentage (%) of change in height divided by horizontal distance traveled. Climb Gradients on performance charts are true gradients for the ALL-UP WEIGHT (AUW) of the acft which allows for temperature/aerodrome pressure altitude and acft configuration - They are achieved from True Rates of Climb, not Pressure. - CLIMB GRADIENT = ((THRUST-DRAG)/WEIGHT) x100 The table below summarizes the climb gradient requirements in each takeoff segment: 32 NET T/O FLIGHT PATH: is the true height versus horizontal distance traveled from reference zero assuming failure of the critical engine at V1 and it is used to determine the obstacle clearance by a specific minimal amount (35”). Flight Path begins at REFERENCE ZERO, where the jet acft has attained a height of 35ft (dry conditions) and V2 after failure of its critical engine at V1, landing gear retraction is completed at the end of the first segment, and the climb is continued at V2 with T/O flaps and T/O thrust on the operating engine until the second to third segment level-off transition takes place at: - A minimum gross height of 400ft; - Maximum standard gross height, usually 1000ft (AGL); Then the acft is accelerated in level flight, flaps are retracted (according to speed schedule) and acceleration is continues to the final segment, where climb is,reassumed on Max Continuous Thrust (MCT) or the max height which can be reached using: - T/O thrust for its max period after brakes are released (usually 5minutes); - Max Continuous Thrust (MCT) to an unrestricted height; If an acft is said to be TAKEOFF WEIGHT LIMITED by an obstacle in the 2nd segment. This means that the acft TOW has to be reduced to ensure adequate climb performance at a normal V2 speed to clear any obstacles below the 2nd and 3rd segment level-off height. If an acft is limited by an obstacle in the 2nd segment because it´s climb performance is insufficient to clear obstacles, it can use the following procedures: - Increase T/O flaps (within T/O flap range); - Reduce TOW to achieve required climb gradient that clear obstacles; - Increased V2 climb, maintain TOW; - Max angle climb profile; INCREASED V2: Techniques for improving an acft climb gradient performance in the 2nd segment by increasing the V2 climb speed. Increasing the V2 base speed, increases lift, because lift is a function of speed, and for a given weight, an increased V2 speed will provide an increase in lift, thus producing a greater Net Climb Gradient. Thus an increased V2 climb allows higher obstacles to be cleared in the 2nd segment climb-out profile. INCREASED V2 SPEED REQUIRES A GREATER THAN NORMAL TOD OR REDUCED ACFT WEIGHT Increased V2 climb technique can only be used if TOW is not restricted by field length limits, so that some or all of excess field length can be used to increase T/O speed Vr and V2. Benefits: - To achieve a greater obstacle clearance performance with an improved T/O climb gradient without reducing TOW; - To allow a higher acft TOW that achieves the standard (minimum) T/O climb gradient corresponding to the required obstacle clearance gradient; INCREASED V2 TECHNIQUE IS PROHIBITED ON WET RWY If an obstacle in the 3rd segment limits and acft because the obstacle in question is higher than the 2nd to 3rd segment level-off height: - Extended V2 climb profile technique; - Reduce TOW to a level that achieves the required climb profile and clears the obstacle; - Flight path climbing turns to avoid the obstacles; 33 EXTENDED V2 CLIMB: Acft 2nd segment climb at V2 / T/O flaps is: - Continued to the highest possible level-off height allowing for acceleration and flap retraction if applicable which can be reached with max T/O thrust on all operating engines for its max time limit (5minutes); - Continued to an unlimited height with max continuous thrust (MCT), instead of T/O thrust, that meets the acft minimum acceleration and climb gradient requirements in the T/O flight path above 400ft. Extended V2 climb is used to clear distant 3rd segment obstacles that are higher than the normal 2nd to 3rd segment level-off height (between 400 – 1000ft). Extended V2 may only be used to clear the last obstacle in the flight path so that normal 3rd segment acceleration and final segment can be achieved. Vx: Best Angle of Climb (BAC) Steepest angle or highest gradient of climb - Use to clear close-in obstacles over the shortest horizontal distance (SHORTEST DISTANCE) Greatest gain of Altitude / Horizontal distance Vy: Best Rate of Climb (BROC) Highest vertical speed that gains height in the shortest time SHORTEST TIME (RATE OF CLIMB) Greatest gain in Altitude in a given time CRUISE CLIMB: compromise between the best enroute speed profile and the best climb profile (used by commercial airlines) Best Rate of Climb (Vy): departure uses the least trip fuel because it ensures that the acft reaches its optimal cruise altitude as quickly as possible. Acft spends a greater part of its flight time at its optimal altitude than with any other climb profile. Optimal Enroute Altitude has the best aerodynamic and engine performance qualities. Being at the optimal cruise altitude for as long as possible the Best Fuel Economy and Specific Fuel Consumption (SFC) are obtained for the largest percentage of the flight (trip) therefore least trip fuel is used. Reduced Power Climb: (Derated T/O) uses more trip fuel. Using a reduced power climb means that the acft has a slower rate of ascent and therefore takes longer to reach its cruise altitude. It spends less time at its optimal cruise altitude and thus uses more trip fuel. AT OPTIMAL CRUISE ALTITUDE AN ACFT EXPERIENCES THE BEST AERODYNAMIC AND ENGINE PERFORMANCE WHICH RESULTS IN THE BEST FUEL ECONOMY (SFC-SPECIFIC FUEL CONSUMPTION). Flap Extension: Vx ↓ / Vy ↓ PAVEMENT STRENGTH LIMITATIONS There are a huge variety of runway pavement types available, the most common ones being asphalt, concrete, gravel and grass. Jet aircraft operations usually are restricted to asphalt and concrete runways, due to its higher strength and cleanness. Not all concrete and asphalt runways have the same characteristics, including variations in the capacity of the pavement supporting the aircraft weight (pavement strength). As a consequence, each airport authority reports the maximum weight an aircraft may operate on the particular runway without damaging it. There are various methods for reporting the pavement strength, the most common one being the PCN (Pavement Classification Number). In order to use it, the aircraft manufacturer must also publish the ACN (Aircraft Classification Number). 34 The Pavement Classification Number (PCN) reported shall indicate that an airplane with CAN equal to or less than the reported PCN can operate on that pavement. Example: PCN 50 / F / A / X / T / 1 / 2 / 3 / 4 1 - Type of pavement: R = Rigid (concrete) F = Flexible (asphalt) 2 - Pavement sub-grade strength category: A = High, B = Medium, C = Low, D = Ultra-low. 3 - Maximum tire pressure authorized for the pavement: W = High, no limit; X = Medium (up to 217 psi) Y = Low (up to 145 psi); Z = Very low (up to 73 psi) 4 - Pavement evaluation method: T = Technical evaluation; U = By experience of airplane actually using the pavement. OVERLOAD OPERATIONS Individual airport authorities are free to decide on their own criteria for permitting overload operations as long as pavements remain safe for use by airplane. However, the following guidance is provided: A 10% difference in ACN over PCN for flexible pavement and 5% for rigid pavements is generally accepted, provided that overload operations do not exceed 5% of the annual departures and are spread throughout the year. ENROUTE PERFORMANCE Vra/Mra: airspeed for ROUGH AIR conditions or TURBULENCE PENETRATION SPEED. - Based on the acft Vb (designed speed for max gust intensity) - High enough to allow an adequate margin between the acft stall speed - Low enough to protect against structural damage from a high-speed gust disturbance Vmo/Mmo: (IAS velocity/Mach) - Max operating speed permitted for all operations (max operational – jet acft). Vno: normal operating speed (propeller acft) Vdf/Mdf: max flight diving speed. Established as the highest demonstrated speed during flight certification trials Vne: never exceed velocity Absolute Ceiling: acft max attainable altitude/flight level at which the MACH NUMBER BUFFET & PRESTALL BUFFET occur coincidentally COFFIN CORNER. Acft is unable to climb above its absolute ceiling Max Service Ceiling: acft imposed enroute max operating altitude/flight level, which provides a safety margin below absolute ceiling. Total drag generated by an acft is high at both high and low airspeeds. At HIGH Airspeeds the total drag is high because the acft experiences a lot of PROFILE DRAG, and at LOW Airspeeds the total drag is high because the acft experiences a lot of INDUCED DRAG. Minimum drag occurs at an intermediate speed (Vimd) . Max Endurance: achieved by flying at the max endurance airspeed, indicated airspeed (IAS) that relates to the thrust required to balance the minimum drag (Vimd) experienced by the acft.,35 Vimd: is the lowest point/airspeed on the drag curve. - Thrust is a product of engine power and fuel consumption is a function of the engine power used. The acft has the lowest fuel consumption in terms of pounds of fuel used per hour and hence produces the longest flight time for a given quantity of fuel when flying at MAX ENDURANCE. - Speed remains constant with altitude and is used for any delaying action (holding over airfield). Max Range: achieved by flying at the max range airspeed, indicated airspeed (IAS) that balances a value of drag slightly higher than the minimum drag point. (Best Endurance Speed) that achieves a greater range for a given quantity of fuel because the benefits of the increased airspeed outweights the associated increase in drag and fuel consumption. Max Range Airspeed is where the ratio of power required (to produce thrust to balance drag) to airspeed is least. Airspeed is the rate of covering distance, and power required is the rate of burning fuel to produce thrust to balance drag. MAX RANGE SPEED = ENROUTE Max Range Cruise: speed at which, for a given weight and altitude, the max fuel mileage is obtained. It is difficult to establish and maintain stable cruise conditions at Max Range Speeds. Long Range Cruise: speed significantly higher than the Max Range Speed (10kts/M0.01) which results in a 1% mileage loss at a constant altitude. The Long Range Cruise schedule requires a gradual reduction in cruise speed as gross weight decreases with fuel burn off. With one or two engines inoperative the Best Specific Range at high altitudes is: a) improved; b) reduced; c) not affected; d) first improved and later reduced; COST INDEX: Performance management function that optimizes the acft speed for the minimum cost. - Company stored route and are inserted into the FMC. It is taken into account specific routes factors such as the price of fuel at the departure and destination airports so that the acft is flown at the correct speed to balance the fuel costs against the dry operating costs. An incorrect CI will always cost more $$. Range is increased when flying into a HEADWIND because the best range speed will be a little faster, and the airspeed represents the rate of distance covered. Therefore, range will be increased with a headwind. Increased fuel flow is compensated by a higher speed, allowing less time enroute for the headwind to act. A flight carried out below its optimal altitude uses more fuel but takes less time to complete the trip when flying at a constant Mach Number (MN). - Higher FL means that time increases and fuel consumption decreases (still air and at constant MN). - Lower FL means that time decreases and fuel consumption increases (still air and at constant MN). The acft uses more fuel because the engines are designed to achieve their best Specific Fuel Consumption (SFC) at a height operating RPM. This can only be achieved at high (optimal) altitudes. So when a flight is carried out below its optimal altitude its engines cannot operate at their optimal RPM therefore, the SFC is higher. Acft uses more fuel to complete the trip. Flights at lower altitudes (below FL260) where IAS is the reference speed, will have the opposite effect. TAS decreases at lower altitudes for constant IAS. Therefore GS is reduced and the trip will take a longer time. 36 OPTIMUM ALTITUDE: Optimum altitude for a given weight is the altitude which gives maximum fuel mileage in still air conditions at Long Range Cruise Speed. MAXIMUM ALTITUDE: is the most limiting of the following considerations: -Thrust limited altitude; -Maneuver (buffet) limited altitude; -Maximum certified altitude; STEP CLIMB: is a technique which may be used to improve fuel mileage capability on long flights by staying closer to optimum altitude as weight is reduced during the cruise segment. It is generally desirable to stay within 2000ft of optimum altitude. Cruise step climb occurs when an acft in the cruise, loses weight due to fuel burn, which allows the acft to fly higher; therefore, a cruise (step) climb is initiated to climb the acft to its new max altitude. - Acft might have several step climbs, especially on long-haul routes. Cruise climb is important because a jet acft most efficient performance is gained at its highest possible altitude. Normal enroute operating performance limitations: - Enroute obstacle/ terrain clearance with 1 or 2 engines INOP; - Max range limit; - Extended twin operations (ETOPS) time limit; Typical fuel plan for a trip: - Takeoff & climb at takeoff thrust; - Climb to initial cruise altitude at max continuous thrust (MCT); - Enroute cruise, including intermediate step climbs; - Descent to a diversion point (go around) over destination; - Contingency fuel; - Diversion to over an alternative AD; - Instrument approach & landing; - Additional amount of holding fuel may be required if the destination is an Island with no alternative or arrival at major airport at busiest period; Actual Fuel Remaining x Planned Fuel Remaining Fuel Howgozit: comparison of the Actual Fuel Remaining against the Planned Fuel Remaining along the flight path. At any stage of flight an estimate of the fuel difference can be obtained and it is ideal to show any trends, such as increasing fuel burn. Critical Point (Equal-time Point) is the enroute track position where it is as quick (time) to go to your destination as is to turn back. CP is calculated as a distance and time from the departure airfield using the formula: Distance to CP = DH O + H D – Total sector distance H – Ground speed home O – Ground speed out Time to CP = distance to CP/O 37 Critical Point moves into the wind in still air conditions; the Critical Point (CP) between 2 aerodromes is the Halfway Point. Flying into a headwind moves the CP closer to the destination aerodrome; Flying with a tailwind moves the CP closer to the departure aerodrome; CP is the equal time point to reach an airfield and therefore GS (Groundspeed) is all-important GS = TAS x WV MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION TO ASK IN AN EMERGENCY GIVEN 2 DIVERSION AERODROMES IS: WHICH AERODROME IS THE QUICKEST TO GET TO? PNR (Point of No Return): the last point on a Route at which it is possible to return to the departure aerodrome with a sensible fuel reserve. Normal PNR is based on the acft safe endurance: Time to PNR = EH O x H E – safe endurance time H – ground speed home O – ground speed out Distance to PNR = time to PNR x O One-engine PNR: - Calculate 1NM round trip fuel flow (all-engine ground speed out & one-engine INOP ground speed home); - Safe endurance divided by 1 NM round trip flow; One-engine PNR time is calculated by distance divided by ground speed out. PNR is important for acft flying over large water areas it is crucially important to have a PNR if you elect to carry Island Holding Fuel instead of Diversion Fuel because you become solely committed to landing at your destination once you pass the PNR. Island Holding Fuel: quantity of fuel uplifted usually in place of diversion fuel that allows an acft to hold over a destination aerodrome for an extended period of time (associated with remote island: such as Easter Island). Where there is no diversion option and there is possibility of a delayed landing due to adverse weather. 38 LDA (Landing Distance Available): Taking into account any obstacles in the flight path, from 50ft above the surface of the RWY Threshold height (fence) to the end of the landing RWY. Landing distance available Landing Field Length regulations require that the landing distance on a dry runway, based on the landing weight assuming normal fuel consumption, must not exceed 60% of the available landing distance. There is another way,of interpreting this requirement: given a certain unfactored landing distance, the required landing distance or dry runway factored distance is equal to this value multiplied by 1.67 (1/60% = 1.67). The available landing distance must not be less than the required landing distance. The Field Length Limited Landing Weight is the maximum weight at which the aircraft is capable of landing in 60% of the available runway length. FAR-121.195 and JAR-OPS-1.520 state that in case appropriate weather reports or forecast indicate that the runway at the estimated time of arrival may be wet, the landing distance available is at least 115% of the required landing distance, defined in accordance with FAR-121.195 and JAR-OPS-1.515. Therefore, for wet runways, since the dry runway factored distance is the unfactored landing distance multiplied by 1.67, the wet runway factored distance is the unfactored landing distance multiplied by 1.92 (1.67 x 115% = 1.92). 39 LDR (Landing Distance Required): Distance required from the point where the acft is 50ft over the RWY (Threshold fence height) at a Max Vat (velocity at the threshold) to the point where the acft reaches a full stop. Touchdown Aiming Point: is 1000ft along the RWY given a 3° flight path (marker board markings on the RWY surface). - Given a 3-degree glide path and a 1000ft touchdown the height of the acft over the RWY THR fence is 50ft. Increased acft weight results in a greater landing distance required (LDR). - Stalling speed is increased with higher acft weight, so minimum approach speed Vref/Vat (1.3 Vs) must be higher. Higher approach speed requires a greater landing distance to come to a full stop. - Greater acft weight and higher approach speed result in a greater momentum of the landing acft. Therefore require more distance to stop. - Increased weight means that the kinetic energy (1/2 m V2) is higher, and the brakes have to absorb this greater energy, which increases landing distance required (LDR). INCREASE IN WEIGHT, INCREASES THE LDR Increased flap settings decrease the landing distance required: - Flap deployment increases lift and reduces stalling speed (shorter landing required); - Higher the flap deployment, the greater is the aerodynamic drag that helps to slow down the acft (shorter land required); - The higher the flap setting and the steepest the approach path, the lower is the forward velocity and momentum on landing (shorter landing required); An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will have: a) a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance b) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance c) a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance d) an increased landing distance and better go-around performance An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have: a) an increased landing distance and better go-around performance b) a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance c) a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance d) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance A higher flap setting within the T/O range will reduce the T/O ground run for a given acft weight. Use of flaps increases the max Cl. Of the wing due to the increased chord line for a low drag penalty. Which reduce stall speeds (Vs), (Vr) and (V2), the higher the flap setting within this range, the less is the T/O run required because the drag is not significantly increased because the angle of attack is low. However the drag increment is higher when the acft is in flight and out-of-ground effect. Because of the acft angle of attack is much higher. MAXIMUM LANDING WEIGHT The Maximum Landing Weight is the lower of these four limiting weights: • Structural Landing Weight; • Field Length; • Approach Climb Gradient; • Landing Climb Gradient. 40 Pressure Altitude: is height above the standard datum plane (SDP). If the altimeter is set for 29.92”Hg / 1013Hpa the altitude indicated is the pressure altitude. (altitude in the standard atmosphere corresponding to the sensed pressure). What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased? a) It will increase the take-off distance; b) It will decrease the take-off distance; c) It will increase the take-off distance available; d) It will increase the accelerate stop distance available; What will be the effect on an aeroplane´s performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased? a) It will increase the take-off distance required; b) It will increase the take-off ground run; c) It will increase the accelerate stop distance; d) It will decrease the take-off distance required; An increase in atmospheric pressure has among other things, the following consequences on landing performance: a) A reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance; b) A reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance; c) An increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance; d) And increased landing distance and improved go-around performance; Density Altitude: is Pressure Altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. As the density of the air increases (lower density altitude), aircraft performance increases. On the other hand, as air density decreases (higher density altitude), aircraft performance decreases. Density Altitude is the: a) altitude read directly from the altimeter; b) height above the surface; c) pressure altitude corrected for “non-standard” temperature; d) altitude reference to the standard datum plane; Density Altitude is used in calculating aircraft performance. Is the vertical distance above sea level in the standard atmosphere at which a given density is to be found. Computation of density altitude must involve consideration of pressure (pressure altitude) and temperature. Density Altitude is determined by first finding pressure altitude, and then correcting this altitude for nonstandard temperature variations. Since density varies directly with pressure, and inversely with temperature. Air density is affected by changes in altitude, temperature and humidity. HIGH DENSITY ALTITUDE: thin air / high elevations / low atmospheric pressure / high temperatures / high humidity LOW DENSITY ALTITUDE: dense air / low elevations / low atmospheric pressure / low temperatures / low humidity SATURATED AIR – relative humidity of 100% 41 LANDING PERFORMANCE AFFECTED Pressure Altitude: High aerodrome elevation (high pressure altitude) decrease acft performance, which results in an increased landing distance, required (LDR) - HOT means a decrease a in performance that results in greater LDR or lower Landing Weight (LW). Air Density (rho) / Density Altitude (Pressure Altitude & Temperature): Increase in density altitude (decrease in air density) decreases an acft performance, which results in an increased LDR. - HOT & HIGHT: mean a decrease in performance that results in either a greater LDR or a lower Landing Weight (LW). Humidity: high humidity decreases air density, which decreases an acft aerodynamic (Cl) and engine performance, resulting in an increased LDR for a given acft weight. - HOT / HIGHT & HUMID: mean a decrease in performance that results in greater LDR or a lower Landing Weight (LW). WIND: acft may experience Headwind / Tailwind / Crosswind Headwind: reduces LDR for a given weight or permits a higher landing weight (LW) for the available LDA. GS is reduced by HW for same TAS. - Lower touchdown speed; - Greater headwind, the greater acft landing performance Tailwind: increases the LDR for a given weight or requires a lower LW for the LDA. GS is increased by TW for same TAS. - Acft,has a higher touchdown speed. - Greater tailwind, the worse is the acft landing performance. RWY LENGTH: restricts max weight of acft. The longer the RWY length and greater the acft stopping action, the higher its Vat/Vref approach can be. The longer the RWY length available, the greater the acft landing weight can be. RWY SURFACE: low-friction surfaces increase landing distance required (LDR) for a given weight because the surface does not permit effective braking - Low-friction surface: contaminated hard surface (snow/water) non-hard surface (grass/mud surfaces) RWY SLOPE: - Downward slope: requires a longer LD for given weight or lower LW for given LDA (downslope maintains the acft momentum, acft braking is less effective). - Upward slope: requires a shorter LD for a given acft weight or allows a higher LW for a given LDA. - Upslope dissipates the acft momentum, braking is more effective. RLW (Restricted Landing Weight): Max landing weight for the RWY length (LDA) and conditions Factors: - Engine out overshoot performance - Weight - Altitude - Pressure (WAT) - RWY length (LDA) conditions 42 Vmcl: Minimum control speed in the air for the MLTE acft in the approach & landing configuration at and above is possible to maintain directional control of acft (around normal/vertical axis). Vat/Vref: - Vat: Velocity at Threshold - Vref: Reference Speed Target approach THR speed above the fence height for a specified flap setting that ensures that the landing field length is achieved. Vat/Vref = 1.3 Vs (in landing configuration); Vat0 = target THR, all-engine operation speed with max flap setting; Vat1 = target THR, one-engine (critical) INOP speed; Vat2 = target THR, 2 engine INOP speed; Adjustments to Vat/Vref are made for Headwind values, 50% of headwind and full gust value are added to Vat/Vref speed up to a max permitted limit. 43 EMERGÊNCIA PERIGO (DISTRESS): condição onde a acft encontra-se ameaçada por um perigo sério e/ou iminente e requer assistência imediata MAYDAY / MAYDAY / MAYDAY Urgent Assistance Signal sent by radiotelephony, consisting of the spoken word MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY means: Imminent danger threatens the acft and immediate assistance is required. URGÊNCIA (URGENCY): condição relacionada a Segurança de uma acft ou outro veículo, ou de alguma pessoa a bordo ou a vista mas que não requer assistência imediata PANPAN / PANPAN / PANPAN “MAYDAY-MAYDAY-MAYDAY, TORRE CAMPINAS, AZUL 4-2-8-8 PERDA DE MOTOR NA DECOLAGEM, MANTENDO RUMO DA PISTA SUBINDO P/ 6000FT” CALLSIGN: MAYDAY + AZUL(VOO) *SQUAWK: 7700 “CIENTE, MAYDAY AZUL 4-2-8-8 AUTORIZADO SUBIDA DESCIDA P/ 5000FT” CANCELAMENTO: “TORRE CAMPINAS, AZUL 4-2-8-8, CANCELANDO MAYDAY” When an acft is no longer in distress, it shall transmit a message cancelling the distress condition. Which words shall this message include? a) MAYDAY, resuming normal operations; b) Cancel distress; c) MAYDAY cancelled; d) Distress condition terminated; DISTRESS: a condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance. DISTRESS PHASE: a situation wherein there is a reasonable certainty that an acft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger or require immediate assistance. CANCEL DISTRESS: never use “CANCEL MAYDAY” as the word MAYDAY usually triggers everybody and starts panic. MAYDAY: - falha de motor - perda de pressurização rápida - fogo/fumaça não identificada/incontrolável - emergência elétrica - falha de trem de pouso - pilot Incapacitation When a wire type fire system is tested: a) Only the warning function is tested; b) A part of the wire is totally heated; c) The wire is totally heated; d) The wiring and the warning are tested; 44 Fases de Emergência: INCERTEZA (INCERFA): quando não se tem comunicação da aeronave após 30minutos seguintes à hora em que deveria se receber a comunicação da mesma ou quando a acft não chega após 30minutos do ETA. ALERTA (ALERFA): após a fase de INCERFA, se ainda não conseguir comunicação. Quando acft autorizada a pousar não o fizer dentro de 5minutos seguintes. OBJETO DE INTERFERÊNCIA ILÍCITA. PERIGO (DETRESFA): após a fase de ALERFA, ainda sem comunicação quando se evidenciar que a autonomia da acft tenha esgotado. Emergency Frequencies: 121.50 / 243.00 VHF TRANSPONDER: 7500 – Unlawful Interference / hijacking / unlawful interception 7600 – Two-way communication failure (radio-comm failure) 7700 – Emergency Position: ON - #3 (Threshold) OFF - #5 (Landing/Leaving RWY) TCAS: An aircraft’s traffic collision avoidance system (TCAS) will interrogate the secondary surveillance radar (SSR) transponders of nearby aircraft to plot their positions and relative velocities. Direction finding aerials obtain the relative bearings of other aircraft, and distance is calculated by using the time delay between the transmitted and received signals. With this information, the TCAS computer can determine the track and closing speeds of other aircraft fitted with transponders, and where it determines a collision is possible, it provides visual and aural warnings as well as command actions on how to avoid the collision. This is all done with vertical avoidance commands only. As yet, no turn commands are given. The warnings and advice (advised actions) from the system have different levels: Initially. A traffic advisory (TA) warning is generated for other traffic that may become a threat. No maneuver is advised or should be taken. Collision threat. A resolution advisory (RA) warning is generated when an aircraft is considered to be on a collision course. Advice on a maneuver in the pitching plane, i.e., rate of climb or descent, to avoid the collision is generated that can be increased or decreased as the threat increases or reduces until a clear of conflict notice is given. Therefore, you only respond to an RA, which should be done promptly and smoothly and should take precedence over air traffic control (ATC) clearance to avoid immediate danger. RA use should be restricted in the following circumstances: 1. In dense traffic area (limited to TA use) 2. Descent recommendations inhibited below 1000 ft 3. All RAs inhibited below 500 ft (Note: All TAs also restricted below 400 ft) TCAS can cope with mode A, C, and S transponders. However, when both aircraft are equipped with TCAS II and mode S, the advice on how to avoid a collision will be coordinated by the mode S data link between the two aircraft. 45 VDP – Visual Descent Point A defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straight-in approach procedure from which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may be commenced, provided the approach threshold of that runway, or approach lights, or other markings identifiable with the approach end of that runway are clearly visible to the pilot. O VDP é um ponto, calculado pelos pilotos, para melhora do Alerta Situacional durante uma aproximação. O objetivo de se determinar o VDP é para se confirmar que a aeronave estará em uma posição apropriada na aproximação correspondente ao ponto de intersecção com o perfil (rampa) de 3° para a Zona de Toque (TDZE). Existem diversas maneiras de se calcular o VDP, todas se utilizam da regra do 3 para 1 (3-1), onde para cada milha do toque, a rampa corresponde a um múltiplo de 300ft. acima da TDZE. Exemplo: uma MDA coloca a aeronave a 480ft. acima da TDZE. Isto significa (3-1) que a rampa normal (3°) intercepta a MDA a aproximadamente 1.6NM da cabeceira da pista. A partir do VDP, uma aproximação não deverá ser continuada, em função da,necessidade da adoção de uma razão de descida alta a baixa altitude, contrariando o princípio de “Aproximação Estabilizada”. Neste caso a MDA será mantida e no MAPT o procedimentos de aproximação perdida será iniciado. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 Decision Altitude/Height (DA/H): specified altitude or Height (A/H) in the precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if the Required visual Reference to continue the approach has not been established. Decision Altitude (DA) is referenced to MEAN SEA LEVEL (MSL) and Decision Altitude (DH) is referenced to the THRESHOLD (THR) ELEVATION. Decision Height (DH): with respect to the operation of the acft, means the height at which a decision must be made, during an ILS/PAR instrument approach, to either continue the approach or to execute a missed approach. Jeppesen APP Charts use DA(H). The Decision Altitude DA is referenced to MEAN SEA LEVEL (MSL) and the parenthetical Decision Height (DH) is referenced to the TDZE or Threshold Elevation. TDZE (Touchdown Zone Elevation): highest elevation in the first 3000ft. of the landing surface. STAR: Standard Instrument Arrival (ICAO) Standard Terminal Arrival Route (USA) MAA: Maximum Authorized Altitude Published altitude representing the maximum usable altitude or flight level for an airspace structure or route segment. MCA: Minimum Crossing Altitude The lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an acft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher minimum enroute IFR altitude (MEA). MDA/H: Minimum Descent Altitude/HEIGHT ICAO: a specified altitude or height in a non-precision approach or circling approach below which descent may not be made without visual reference. USA: the lowest altitude, expressed in feet above mean sea level, to which descent is authorized on final approach or during circle-to-land maneuvering in execution of a standard instrument approach procedure where no electronic glide slope is provided MEA: Minimum Enroute Altitude The lowest published altitude between radio fixes that meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes and in many countries assures acceptable navigational signal coverage. The MEA applies to the entire width of the airway, segment, or route between the radio fixes defining the airway, segment or route. MOCA: Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude The lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and in the USA assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 22 NM of a VOR. MORA: Minimum Off-Route Altitude This is an altitude derived by Jeppesen. The MORA provides known obstruction clearance 10NM either side of the route centerline including a 10NM radius beyond the radio fix reporting mileage break defining the route segment. For terrain and man-made structure clearance refer to Grid MORA. 68 GRID MORA: (GRID MINIMUM OFF-ROUTE): an altitude derived by Jeppesen or provided by State authorities. GRID MORA provides terrain and man-made structure clearance within the section outlined by latitude and longitude lines. GRID MORA values derive by Jeppesen clears all terrain and man-made structure by 1000ft. in areas where the highest elevations are 5000ft. MSL or lower. MORA values clear all terrain and man-made structures by 2000ft. in areas where the highest elevation are 5001ft. MSL or higher. GRID MORA (State) altitude supplied by the State Authority provides 2000ft. clearance in mountainous areas and 1000ft. in non-mountainous areas. MRA: Minimum Reception Altitude The lowest altitude which an intersection can be determined. MSA: Minimum Safe Altitude Altitude depicted on an IAC and identified as the minimum safe altitude which provides 1000feet of obstacle clearance within a 25NM radius from the navigational facility upon which the MSA is predicated. If the radius limit is other than 25NM, it is stated. This altitude is for EMERGENCY USE ONLY and does not necessarily guarantee navaid reception. When the MSA is divided into sectors, with each sector a different altitude, the altitudes in these sectors are referred to as “Minimum Sector Altitude”. MSA: Minimum Sector Altitude – ICAO The lowest altitude that may be used under emergency conditions that provides a minimum clearance of 300 meters (1000ft.) above all obstacles within a sector of a circle of 46km (25NM) centered on a navigational aid. - TAA: Terminal Arrival Area Altitude mais baixa que prevê liberação de obstáculo de (300m/1000ft) acima de todos obstáculos em um raio de 25NM, centrado no fixo de aproximação inicial (IAF) ou fixo intermediário (IF). 69 MVA: Minimum Vectoring Altitude The lowest MSL altitude at which an IFR acft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures and missed approaches. The altitude meets IFR obstacle clearance criteria. It may be lower than the published MEA along an airway of J-route segment. It may be utilized for radar vectoring only upon the controller´s determination that an adequate radar return is being received from the acft being controlled. Charts depicting minimum vectoring altitudes are normally available only to controllers, not to pilots. MHA: Minimum Holding Altitude MHA is the lowest prescribed for a holding pattern that assures navigational signal coverage, communications, and meets obstacle clearance requirements. Pilots should be aware of the MHA when entering or starting a holding procedure at all times in order to meet the safety requirements. Minimum IFR Altitudes: Minimum altitudes for IFR operations are published on aeronautical charts for airways, routes, and for standard instrument approach procedures. Within the USA, if no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed the following minimum IFR altitude apply: a) In designated mountain areas, 2000ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4NM from the course to be flown; b) Other than mountainous areas, 1000ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4NM from the course to be flown; c) As otherwise authorized by the Administrator or assigned ATC. Transition Altitude (QNH): 5000’ Altitude in the vicinity of an airport at or below which the vertical position of acft is controlled by reference to altitude (MSL). Altitude at and below which local pressure setting must be used. Transition Height (QFE): Height in the vicinity of an airport at or below which the vertical position of an acft is expressed in height above the airport reference datum Transition Level (QNE): FL060 Lowest flight level available for use above the Transition Altitude Lowest level of flight using Standard Altimeter Setting 70 LIGHTS RUNWAY EDGE LIGHTS (ICAO) – Are provided for a runway intended for use at night or for a precision approach runway intended for use by day or night. Runway edge lights shall be fixed lights showing variable white, except that: - In the case of a displaced threshold, the lights between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold shall show red in the approach direction; and - A section of the lights 600m or one-third of the runway length, whichever is the less, at the remote end of the runway from the end at which the take-off run is started, may show yellow. Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be: a) Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow. b) Flashing white. c) Fixed lights,showing variable white. d) Fixed lights, white or yellow colour. Spacing for Runway Edge Lights and Centerline lights is included as a parenthetical value, at selected locations. The parenthetical value is the spacing in feet or meters as appropriate. Example: HIRL (60m), is High Intensity Runway Edge Lights with a 60 meter spacing (CL50´), is Centerline Lights with a 50 foot spacing. Runway Centerline Lightning - Centerline lightning is white except: - Last 2000 feet of EDGE lights split yellow/white; - Last 3000 feet centerline lights red/white; - Last 1000 feet centerline lights red Runway centerline lights, edge lights and end lights 71 CAT I approach lights (centerline lights and crossbars) shall be fixed lights showing: a) Variable intensity white; b) Flashing white; c) Variable intensity yellow; d) White, flashing every 2 seconds; In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be: a) Flashing lights showing variable green. b) Fixed lights showing variable white. c) Flashing lights showing variable white. d) Fixed lights showing variable green. Runway threshold lights shall be: a) Fixed lights showing green or white colours. b) Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway. c) Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway. d) Fixed lights green colours. 72 REGULAMENTOS Consulta: AIC N°07/09 (Procedimentos de Navegação Aérea) ICA 100-12 ICA 100-37 Manual Jeppesen MSG de Posição (AIREP): Identificação (matrícula) Posição Hora Nível de voo/ altitude Próxima posição/hora de sobrevoo Próximo ponto significativo Informações complementares TAM 3703 ACFT ID: N465FT Posição XARÉO POSITION & TIME: Haven/ Two Six (26) Aos 45 (minutos UTC) LEVEL: Flight Level Three Five Zero (FL350) Nível 310 (FL310) NEXT POSITION & ESTIMATE: Key West / Five One (51) Florianópolis aos 53 (minutos UTC) Próxima posição PAULA MSG METEOROLÓGICA Temperatura do ar Vento Turbulência Formação de gelo na anv. Informações complementares Azul 4288 sobrevoando NANDU 20:03 Nível 350, estimando PONCA 20:11, OSAMU a próxima, temperatura menos 47, vento 300 graus 75 nós, turbulência moderada, trovoada e nuvens CB entre as posições BELIC/ILBEK/NAFIL Routine Position Reporting Position reports, formally called AIREPs, are required unless either the AIP or the ATS unit permit the pilot to omit them. It is normal to omit position reports when under radar control. Position reports contain the following elements of information, except that the last three may be omitted when prescribed on the basis of regional air navigation agreements. • Aircraft identification • Position • Time • Level • Next position and time over • Ensuing significant point Note: when transmitting time, only the minutes of the hour should be required. Each digit should be pronounced separately. The hour is only included when any possibility of confusion is likely to arise. 73 AIREP Content The AIREP is divided into three sections, the first always sent, the others only sent when required. Section 1 - Position Information • Aircraft identification • Position • Time • Flight level or altitude • Next position and ETA Section 2 - Operational Information • Estimated time of arrival • Endurance Section 3 - Meteorological Information • Air temperature • Wind • Turbulence • Aircraft icing • Supplementary information When a special AIREP of pre-eruption volcanic activity, a volcanic eruption or volcanic ash cloud is transmitted, the content and order in the AIREP message is: • Aircraft identification • Position • Time • Flight level or altitude • Volcanic activity observed • Air temperature • Wind • Supplementary information Routine Met Observations Routine met observations are made at ATS reporting points roughly an hour apart or when requested. An aircraft is exempted from making routine observations when: a) the flight duration is 2 hours or less. b) The aircraft is within an hour of landing. c) The aircraft is below 1500 m (5000 ft). Because position reports are omitted when under radar control and radar control is the norm over land this tends to mean that routine position reports contain met information mostly when operating in oceanic areas. Shanwick Airbus123 55 North 15 West 0300 FL330 estimate 57 North 20 West 0400 next 58 North 25 West wind 250 diagonal 50 temperature minus 57 over. 74 The term "OVER" at the end of the transmission indicates an HF position report. OVER = My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you. OUT = This exchange of transmission is ended and no response is expected. "OVER" and "OUT" are not normally used in VHF communications, these are HF terms. Gradiente de subida: Razão expressa em porcentagem entre a variação do deslocamento vertical e a distância percorrida pela aeronave sobre a superfície terrestre. A SID estabelece o gradiente mínimo exigido para a subida. Gradiente mínimo nunca pode ser inferior a 3.3% Velocidade de subida (kts) x Gradiente exigido = múltiplo de 50ft. (arredondado) CATEGORIA ÓTIMO MÁXIMO A / B (3.O°) 5.24% 318ft/NM (3.7°) 6.5% 395ft/NM C /D / E (3.0°) (3.5°) 6.1% 370ft/NM 75 NOTAM (Notice to Airmen): NOTAM Number / Year (YY) / Type of NOTAM Q) Summary A) Applies To B) Valid From C) Valid Until D) Repeat Cycle E) Message Content F) Lower Vertical Limit G) Upper Vertical Limit NOTAM N: new NOTAM E: event NOTAM R: replacing NOTAM C: cancelation NOTAM Q-CODES: A) Airspace Organization C) Communications and Radar F) Facilities and Services G) Military I) Instrument and Microwave Landing L) Lightning M) Movement and Landing Area N) Terminal and En-route Navigation O) Other P) Air Traffic Procedures R) Airspace Restrictions S) Air Traffic / VOLMET Services T) Hazard W) Warning X) Other FIR: RECIFE: B SÃO PAULO: D CURITIBA: E BRASÍLIA: F MANAUS: G CENTRO GERAL DE NOTAM: Z FIR: Espaço aéreo ATS mais simples que existe classificado como G. Serviço prestado: Serviço de Informação de Voo e Alerta Limite Vertical Superior: UNL (ilimitado) Limite Vertical Inferior: GND / MSL (solo/água) Limite Lateral: Cartas de rota (ERC) 76 77 Consulta de abreviaturas: ROTAER – Seção 4 AIP Brasil – GEN 2.2 Flight Information Region (FIR) is a specified region of airspace in which a flight Information service and an alerting service (ALRS) are provided. ICAO ANNEX 11 – Air Traffic Services The information on holding, approach and departure procedures are found in the following part of the AIP: a) MAP b) GEN c) ENR d) AD 78 ABREVIATURAS: ACT – Ativo/ativado (active) APCH – Aproximação/descida ATCSMAC – Carta de Altitude Mínima de Vigilância do Controle de Tráfego Aéreo AUTH – Autorizado/autorização BDRY – Limite (boundary) BTN – Entre (between) CCV – Carta de Corredores Visuais CLR – Autorizar/autorizado/autorização (cleared/clear) CLRD – Autorização de Tráfego (Clearance) CNL – Cancelado COOR – Coordenar/coordenação COORD – Coordenadas CTC – Contato/comunique-se CTL – Controle CWY – Zona Livre de Obstáculo (Clearway) D-CL – Data Link Clearance (Data Link CLRD) DLY – Diariamente (daily) HGT – Altura (Height) HJ – Horário diurno (nascer ao por do sol) INSTL – Instalado/instalar,LGTD – Iluminado (Lightened) LT – Lateral LTD – Limitado LVL – Nível (Level) MEHT – Altura Mínima dos olhos (do piloto) sobre a cabeceira (p/ sistemas indicadores de trajetória de aproximação visual) – Minimum Eye Height MOV – Mover NEG – Negativo/Não (Negative) OBST – Obstáculo O/R – A pedido PF – Piston Fuel PJE – Exercício de Salto de Para-quedista PRKG – Estacionamento (parking) PROC – Procedimento (Procedure) PVS – Plano de Voo Simplificado REP – Ponto de Notificação (Reporting Point) RTO – Restrito à SDBY – Permanecer na escuta (stand-by) SER – Serviço/ Prestando Serviço / Servido SFC - Superfície SR – Nascer do sol (Sunrise) SUBJ – Sujeito à (subject to) SWY – Zona de parada (Stopway) TA – Altitude de Transição (Transition Altitude) TFC – Tráfego TIL – até (until) UNL – Ilimitado (Unlimited) U/S – Fora de serviço/ não utilizado 79 ATLÂNTICO (SBAO) – FL080 (mínimo) Limite 10°W. CURITIBA (SBCW) – FL110 (mínimo) AMAZÔNICA (SBAZ) – FL080 (mínimo) BRASÍLIA (SBBS) – FL110 (mínimo) RECIFE (SBRE) – FL080 (mínimo) Na região localizada próxima a fronteira com a Venezuela (FIR MANTIQUEIRA) FL130 (mínimo). Quando a FIR estiver no espaço aéreo superior será denominada: Região Superior de Informação de Voo (UIR). UIR: Upper Flight Information Region FIR não se proporciona separação entre os tráfegos. COMMUNICATION FAILURE 7600 BLIND TRANSMISSION (frequência em uso) / 121.50 Segue até onde autorizado (ponto autorizado) Segue conforme plano (até auxilio nav. / fixo designado do destino) Inicia descida no NAVAID/ fixo (na última hora estimada recebida/cotejada) IAC previsto / pousar se possível dentro dos 30minutos da hora estimada 80 81 When an acft Station is unable to establish communication due to receiver failure, it shall transmit reports at the scheduled times, or positions, on the frequency in use, preceded by the phrase: “TRANSIMITTING BLIND DUE TO RECEIVER FAILURE”. During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will: a) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC; b) Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight; c) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC; d) Select 7600 and continue according current flight plan to destination; Blind Transmission: station called cannot talk back. Disregard: “consider that transmission as not sent”. To decide not to comply with or ignore an instruction. Information or recommendation. Flight crews may DISREGARD ATC instructions in certain situations (to resolve a TCAS resolution advisory). 82 If you are flying IFR in IMC conditions and you experience a total communications failure, you should: a) try to contact another aircraft for relay b) land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report to ATS c) try to make contact on another frequency with either a ground station or another aircraft d) continue the flight according to flight plan IFR FLIGHT LEVELS: (flight levels below 24.500ft – quadrantal rule) The Minimum vertical Separation for IFR flight at and below FL290 is 1000ft. RVSM: Vertical separation is only 1000ft. up to FL290 and 2000ft. in non-RVSM airspace. When operating under IFR, between the surface and an altitude of FL290, no acft should come closer vertically than 1000ft. Above FL290, no acft should come closer than 2000ft. except in airspace where RVSM (Reduced Vertical Separation Minimums) can be applied, in this case, vertical separation is 1000ft. (FAA-H-8083-16A) Max Acceptable Difference between Altimeters in RVSM flight: Ground: 25ft (between each PFD); Ground: 75ft (if set QNH); Flight: 200ft (contingencies); RVSM Airspace: from FL290 to FL410 Level change in RVSM airspace is subject to a max of 150ft overshoot. Only moderate or severe thunderstorm is accepted as a reason to leave RVSM airspace. 83 ALTITUDE ALERT: is a device which warns the pilot when he is approaching a pre-set altitude or deviating from that altitude. The altitude alerting system shall be capable of: (1) alerting the flight crew when approaching a preselected altitude; and (2) alerting the flight crew by at least an aural signal, when deviating from a preselected altitude. The operation is illustrated by the diagram above. Some altitude alerters are only fitted with visual warnings while others have an aural warning as well as a light. Typically, a momentary chime is heard and/or a light comes on at a preset point, usually after the “1000ft to go” point. The light goes out when the aircraft comes within a specified distance (usually 200ft - 300ft) of the pre-selected altitude. If the aircraft deviates by a specified amount (usually 200ft - 300ft from the pre-selected altitude) the light comes on together with an aural tone or a voice message such as “ALTITUDE”. Alarms are standardized and follow a code of colors. Those requiring action but not immediately, are signaled by the color: a) red b) green c) flashing red d) amber 84 DESCIDA IFR EM LOCAL DESPROVIDO DE ORGÃO ATC Local Situado em AWY: - obter autorização do ACC para descer ao FL mínimo da AWY - bloquear Navaid no FL mínimo - descer para altitude de transição (TA) e iniciar approach procedure - transmitir na frequência da estação as fases do procedimento Local Situado fora de AWY: - manter o FL de cruzeiro / descer para FL mínimo da FIR - bloquear o Navaid do aeródromo - após bloqueio, iniciar descida em órbita (procedimento de espera) - descer para altitude de transição (TA), iniciar procedimento. - transmitir na frequência da estação as fases do procedimento. Nível Mínimo (FL mínimo): 1° nível disponível acima da Altitude de Transição (TA). CLEARANCE MSG: C – Clearance R – Route A – Altitude F – Frequency T – Transponder Tripulante: toda pessoa devidamente habilitada que exerce função a bordo da aeronave; Jornada de Trabalho de um tripulante terá início no horário de apresentação do mesmo para a realização do seu primeiro voo e encerra-se a trinta minutos após o corte dos motores em seu último voo; Tripulação mínima: necessário para voar; Tripulação simples: mínima + tripulante necessário; Tripulação composta: simples + tripulante no nível de Cmte. + 25% de comissários Tripulação de revezamento: simples + Cmte + copilot + 25% de comissários TRIPULAÇÃO LIMITE JORNADA LIMITE HORAS DE VOO POUSOS Simples 11H + 1H 9H30MIN 5+1 Composta 14H + 1H 12H 6+1 Revezamento 20H + 1H 15H 4+1 Repouso: Jornada de até 12H: Repouso de 12H Jornada acima de 12H menos de 15H: Repouso de 16H Jornada acima de 15H: Repouso 24H 85 Entry Procedures into a Holding Pattern: There are three (03) entry procedures into a holding pattern are based on the sector of entry. The sectors are devised based on the direction of the inbound track and an imaginary line angles at 70° to the inbound holding track through the fix. SECTOR 1: PARALLEL SECTOR 2: OFFSET (TEARDROP) SECTOR 3: DIRECT 86 1) PARALLEL ENTRY: fly to the fix and turn onto an outbound heading to fly parallel to the inbound track on the non-holding side for 1 minute, and then turn in the direction of the holding side through more than 180° to intercept the inbound track to the fix. 2) TEARDROP ENTRY: fly to the fix, and turn onto a heading to fly a track on the holding side at 30° offset to the reciprocal of the inbound track for a period of 1 minute, then turn in the direction of the holding pattern to intercept the inbound track to the fix. 87 3) DIRECT ENTRY: fly to the fix, and turn to follow the holding pattern. On the face of it, the sector 3 direct entry procedure is the,easiest to carry out. However when joining from extremities of the sector area, it is necessary to apply some finesse to the procedure. Direct entry, > 180° turn Direct entry, < 180° and >70° turn The timing in a HOLD PATTERN should be commenced from abeam the fix at the start of the outbound leg or on attaining the outbound heading (whichever comes later). - Outbound timing should be 1minute for a standard holding pattern up to and including 14.000ft and 1:30minutes above 14.000ft. VELOCIDADE NA ESPERA (IAS/ Vi máx.) NORMAL TURBULENCIA Até FL140 170kts. (A/B) 230kts. 170kts. (A/B)280kts. FL140 – FL200 240kts. 280kts. / M 0.83 (menor) FL200 – FL340 265kts. 280kts. / M 0.83 (menor) Acima FL340 Mach 0.83 Mach 0.83 88 Nível Mínimo de Espera é estabelecido em função de fatores topográficos e operacionais, abaixo do qual não é permitido às aeronaves permanecerem em procedimento de espera. A partir deste Nível a aeronave será autorizada a descer para Altitude de Início de Procedimento (normalmente coincide com a Altitude de Transição). Mudança de Nível / Altitude devem ser executadas com razão de subida/descida: Mínima: 500ft/min Máxima: 1000ft/min The Information on holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the following part of the AIP: ENR APP pode solicitar/autorizar razões maiores/menores. The Situation which exists when the radar position of a particular acft is seen na identified on a radar display (Jeppesen) Which does ATC Term Radar Contact signify? a) You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost; b) Your acft has been identified and you will receive separation from all acft while in c) Your acft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated; d) ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has been lost; ICAO ANNEX 11 (Chapter 5) The Alerting Service is provided by: a) The Area Control Center; b) The ATC unit responsible for the acft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5 Mhz; c) Only by ATC units; d) The ATC unit responsible for the acft at that moment; Service provided to notify appropriate organizations regarding acft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organizations as required. When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of: a) air traffic coordination centers. b) control centers only. c) air traffic control and flight information centers. d) search and rescue coordination centers. When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the: a) operational air traffic control centers b) flight information or control organizations c) air traffic co-ordination services d) search and rescue co-ordination centers The units responsible for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue service area: a) Alerting centre and rescue coordination centre. b) Flight information centre and rescue coordination centre. c) Area control centre, flight information centre and rescue coordination centre. d) Rescue coordination centre and rescue sub-centers. 89 Alerting service shall be provided: a) In so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known by the ATS. b) For all controlled flight, to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, and in so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the ATS. c) For all aircraft provided with air traffic control services, only. d) To any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, only. When completing an ATS flight plan for a European destination, clock times are to be expressed in: a) Central European Time b) UTC c) Local mean time d) local standard time Units providing Air Traffic Services (ATS) are: - Area Control Center (ACC); - Flight Information Center (FIC); - Approach Control Office (ACO); - Aerodrome Control Tower (ACT); - Air Traffic Services Reporting Office (ATSRO); The primary duty of a unit providing radar control is to separate traffic. 1. Radar control service. is available wherever radar coverage exists in controlled airspace, i.e., airways, terminal control zones, aerodrome traffic zones, and control areas, whereby air traffic control (ATC) is responsible for: a. Monitoring and separation from other aircraft b. Radar vectoring c. Controlled airspace crossing d. Navigation assistance e. Weather information f. Hazard warnings g. Emergency assistance Note: Instructions from ATC under a radar control service have to be adhered to. However, it remains the responsibility of the aircraft commander, not ATC, to maintain terrain clearance even when under radar control. 2. Radar advisory service. The radar controller will use radio communications to provide: a Traffic information b. Advisory avoiding action necessary to maintain separation from other aircraft 3. Radar information service. The radar controller will use radio communications to provide traffic information only (no avoiding action will be offered). Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back? a) QNH, SSR code, approach aid serviceability; b) QNH, weather information, runway in use; c) ATC clearance, speed instructions, runway state information; d) SSR code, QNH, take-off clearance, speed instructions; SSR: Secondary Surveilance Radar – Transponder ESPAÇO AÉREO CONTROLADO: 90 ATZ: Zona de Controle de Tráfego de Aeródromo c/ TWR CTR: Zona de Controle TMA: Área de Controle de Terminal CTA: Área de Controle Inferior UTA: Área de Controle Superior ICA 100-37 (10.18.5.1.7) A pilot may expect to receive the clearance to land or any alternative clearance before the acft reaches a distance of 2 NM from touchdown; When vectoring acft to the final approach course controllers are required to ensure the intercept is at least 2NM outside the approach gate. APPROACH CLEARANCE: (FAA – Instrument Procedures Handbook / FAA-H-8083-16A) - Vectors to final approach course: The approach gate is an imaginary point used within ATC as a basis for vectoring acft to the final approach course. The gate is established along the final approach course one mile from the FAF on the side away from the airport and is no closer than 5NM from the landing threshold. Controllers are also required to ensure the assigned altitude conforms the following: - Precision Approach: at an altitude not above the Glideslope/Glidepath or below the minimum Glideslope/Glidepath intercept altitude specified on the approach chart; - Non-Precision Approach: at an altitude that allows descent in accordance with the published procedure; Controllers must assign headings that will permit final approach course interception without exceeding the table: Distance From Interception Point to Approach Gate Max Interception Angle Less than 2NM or with triple simultaneous ILS approaches in use 20 ° 2NM or More 30° (45° for helicopter) Typical vector to the final approach course: “… 4 miles from LIMA, turn right heading 3-4-0, maintain two thousand until established on the localizer, cleared ILS runway 3-6 approach.” Long Final: 4NM or 8NM if Direct Approach 91 QNH: arredondado para inteiro INFERIOR mais próximo (questão de segurança, em caso de erro de indicação – altitude menor do que a real) Altitude de Transição (TA): Altitude na qual, ou abaixo, a posição vertical de uma acft é controlada por referências à altitude. Nível de Transição: nível de voo mais baixo disponível para uso, acima da Altitude de Transição (TA). Usado para,efetuar o ajuste de altímetro, quando acft desce do nível mínimo de espera para Altitude de Transição. Nível de Transição é calculado a partir da TA e QNH. QNH ≤ 1013.2 Hpa FL Transição = TA + 1000ft. QNH > 1013.2 Hpa FL Transição = TA + 500ft. FL > TA MAS (Altitude Mínima de Setor): Altitude Mínima de Setor está estabelecida na carta de aproximação (IAC). Ela representa a altitude mais baixa que pode ser utilizada por aeronaves em emergência num setor. A separação proporcionada é de 1000ft. (300m.) acima dos obstáculos contidos num círculo de até 25NM de raio de um (NAVAID/IAF/IF), ou ponto de referência de AD (ARP). 92 MAS é apresentada em forma de altitude, quando for igual ou inferior à Altitude de Transição (TA), ou em Nível de Voo quando acima da TA. (MAS) Altitude ≤ TA (MAS) FL > TA ICAO WEIGHT CATEGORY / WAKE TURBULENCE CATEGORY: (H) HEAVY: 136.000KG (300.000lbs) (M) MEDIUM: 136.000 – 7.000KG (300.000lbs – 15.500lbs) (L) LIGHT: 7.000KG or less (15.500lbs) Super Heavy (A380) MTOW in the order of 560.000lbs Weights refer to acft MTOW. ISA: Sea-level temperature: 15° C Sea-level pressure: 1013mb. Sea-level density: 1225kg/m³ Temperature lapse rate: 6.5° C/1000m. CATEGORIA DAS ACFT: As aeronaves são classificadas de acordo com a velocidade (IAS) de cruzamento de cabeceira Velocidade é o elemento mais importante na PERFORMANCE. ACFT APPROACH CATEGORY (ICAO): The following table indicates the specified range of Handling speeds (IAS in Knots) for each category of acft to perform maneuvers specified. These speed ranges have been assumed for use in calculating airspace and obstacle clearance for each procedure. 1.3 da velocidade de stall (em configuração de pouso e MLGW – peso máximo de pouso) Vat Vat – speed at threshold based on 1.3 times stall speed in the landing configuration at max certified landing mass 93 FMS: The purpose of an FMS is to manage the aircraft’s performance and route navigation to achieve the optimal result. The three sources of flight management system data are 1. Stored databases 2. Pilot inputs via the control display unit (CDU) 3. Other aircraft systems, which are fed automatically into the FMS These input sources are fed into the flight management computer (FMC) and are duplicated for both performance and navigation management functions. A flight management system (FMS) is a fundamental component of a modern airliner's avionics. An FMS is a specialized computer system that automates a wide variety of in-flight tasks, reducing the workload on the flight crew to the point that modern civilian aircraft no longer carry flight engineers or navigators. A primary function is in-flight management of the flight plan. Using various sensors (such as GPS and INS often backed up by Radionavigation) to determine the aircraft's position, the FMS can guide the aircraft along the flight plan. From the cockpit, the FMS is normally controlled through a Control Display Unit (CDU) which incorporates a small screen and keyboard or touchscreen. The FMS sends the flight plan for display to the Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), Navigation Display (ND), or Multifunction Display (MFD). 94 The most common sensors interfacing an FMS to compute the acft position along the flight plan are: - DME; - GPS; - IRS; - VOR; - MLS; - LOCALIZER; - NDB; The purpose of the Flight Management System (FMS), as for example installed in the B737-400, is to provide: a) both manual navigation guidance and performance management b) continuous automatic navigation guidance and performance management c) manual navigation guidance and automatic performance management d) continuous automatic navigation guidance as well as manual performance management Which component of the B737-400 Flight Management System (FMS) is used to enter flight plan routing and performance parameters? a) Multi-Function Control Display Unit b) Flight Management Computer c) Inertial Reference System d) Flight Director System 95 Regarding Electronic Instrument System (EFIS): 1- the Navigation Display (ND) displays Flight Director Bars. 2- the altimeter setting is displayed on the PFD (Primary Flight Display). 3- the PFD is the main flying instrument. 4- the FMA (Flight Mode Annunciator) is part of the ND. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 1, 4. b) 1, 2. c) 2, 3. d) 3, 4. On a modern aircraft, the flight director modes are displayed on the: a) upper strip of the ECAM (Electronic Centralized A/C Management). b) control panel of the flight director only. c) upper strip of the PFD (Primary Flight Display). d) upper strip of the ND (Navigation Display). Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane stabilization are: 1- pitch attitude holding 2- horizontal wing holding 3- displayed heading or inertial track holding 4- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding 5- yaw damping 6- VOR axis holding The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 2, 4, and 5. b) 1, 2 and 5. c) 1, 2, 3 and 6. d) 3, 4, 5 and 6. Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane guidance are: 1- pitch attitude holding 2- horizontal wing holding 3- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding 4- altitude holding 5- VOR axis holding 6- yaw damping The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 2, 3 and 6. b) 1, 3, 4 and 5. c) 3, 4 and 5. d) 1, 2, and 6. 96 MÍNIMOS DE VISIBILIDADE E DISTÂNCIA DE NUVENS – VMC: A visual approach is defined as: an approach when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed with visual reference to the terrain. (JEPPESEN – ICAO). An approach conducted on an IFR flight plan which authorizes the pilot to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport. The pilot must, at all times, have either the airport or the preceding acft in sight. This approach must be authorized and under the control of the appropriate ATC facility. Reported weather at the airport must be ceiling at or above 1000ft. and visibility of 3miles or greater (Jeppesen – USA). To expedite traffic at any time, IFR flights may be authorized to execute visual approaches if the pilot reports that he can maintain visual reference to the surface and the reported cloud ceiling is not below the initial approach level or the pilot reports at any time after commencing the approach procedure that the visibility will permit a visual approach and landing, and a reasonable assurance exists that this can be accomplished. 97 Unless authorized, a VFR flight shall not be flown: - Over congested areas of cities or over an open-air assembly of persons at a height less than 1000ft above the highest obstacle, within a radius of 600m from the acft; - Elsewhere at a height less than 500ft above the ground or water; All VFR flights shall not be flown (except for T/O, landing by emission from authority): - At a height less than 150m (500ft.) above the ground or water; - At a height less than 300m (1000ft.) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600m from the acft over the congested areas of cities/towns or settlements or over open-air assembly of persons. 98 Air traffic control service is a service provided for the purpose of: preventing collisions: between aircraft, and between aircraft and obstracles on the maneuvering area; and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic. (ICAO Annex 11) Air traffic control service is provided: to all IFR flights in airspace Classes A, B, C, D and E; to all VFR flights in airspace Classes B, C and D; to all special VFR flights; to all aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes.,Clearances issued by air traffic control units provide separation: between all flights in airspace Classes A and B; between IFR flights in airspace Classes C, D and E; between IFR flights and VFR flights in airspace Class C; between IFR flights and special VFR flights; between special VFR flights when so prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, Further Reading ICAO Annex 11 Chapter 3 ICAO Doc 4444: Procedures for Air Navigation Services- Air Traffic Management (PANS-ATM ESCALA DE CLAREZA (READABILITY) 1 ININTELIGÍVEL (UNREADABLE) 2 INTELIGÍVEL POR VEZES (READABLE NOW & THEN) 3 INTELIGÍVEL COM DIFICULDADE (READABLE BUT WITH DIFFICULTY) 4 INTELIGÍVEL (READABLE) 5 PERFEITAMENTE INTELIGÍVEL (PERFECTLY READABLE) http://www.skybrary.aero/index.php/IFRhttp://www.skybrary.aero/index.php/Classification_of_Airspacehttp://www.skybrary.aero/index.php/VFR99 WARNING: RED, indicates na unsatisfactory condition Emergency requiring immediate action; CAUTION: AMBER, indicates a caution/borderline condition usually a malfunction requiring action ASAP; ADVISORY: GREEN, indicates a satisfactory or normal operation (no action required); Warning lights in the cockpit are RED. Acft must be able to land within 60% of effective RWY. If RWY is forecasted to be wet/slippery 15% must be added to the required landing RWY. 100 METEOROLOGIA Consulta: FCA 105-2 (Códigos Meteorológicos TAF) FCA 105-3 (Códigos Meteorológicos METAR/SPECI) SIGWX NUVENS: SKC: SKY CLEAR (0/8) FEW: FEW (1-2/8) – POUCAS SCT: SCATTERED (3-4/8) – ESPARSO BKN: BROKEN (5-7/8) – NUBLADO OVC: OVERCAST(8/8) – ENCOBERTO Vento: Norte Verdadeiro VRB – Variável (+60°/-180°) (menos de 3kts) VRB10KT – Variando (180° ou mais) (mais de 3kts) 31015KT 280V350 predominante variando entre P: vento acima de 99kts. Vento calmo: 6kts (REG) / 3kts (MET) 00000: vento calmo WINDSHEAR: Conditions are normally associated with the Following phenomena: Thunderstorms / microbursts / funnel cloud / gust fronts Frontal surfaces Strong surface winds coupled with local topography Sea breeze fronts Mountain waves (low-level rotor in terminal area) “WS WRNG SURFACE WIND 320/20KMH WIND AT 60M 360/50KMH IN APCH” “WS WRNG MBST APCH RWY26” LEVE 0 – 4 KTS/100FT/MIN MODERADA 5 – 8 KTS/100FT/MIN SEVERA 9 – 12 KTS/100FT/MIN EXTREMA > 12 KTS/500FT/MIN Shear Rate Grau de Turbulência 0 – 2 NONE 3 – 4 VERY LIGHT 5 – 6 LIGHT 7 – 9 MODERATE 10 – acima SEVERE Brackwell Weather Meteorological Office 101 METAR: METAR is a written coded routine Aviation weather report for an Aerodrome. It is an observation of the actual weather given by a meteorologic observer at the aerodrome. Cloud base in METAR is given above ground level (AGL). SBSJ 0902Z 21015G27 1000SW R24/P1500M SHRA BKN025 CB 13/11 1013= Location Identifier: São José dos Campos Time the report was taken (09:02 UTC) Wind direction and speed (210° at 15kts gusting to 27kts) Horizontal visibility: 1000m to the SW RWY Visual Range (RVR) RWY 24 plus 1500m of visibility Weather: rain showers Clouds: broken at 2500ft with Cumulonimbus clouds (CB) Temperature/ Dew point: 13°C / 11°C QNH: 1013 millibars CAVOK: CEILING AND VISIBILITY OK - Visibility equal or greater than 10KM; - No clouds below 5000ft; - No precipitation, thunderstorms, shallow fog; CAVOK does not mean clear blue skies! Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations abbreviated to “CAVOK”? a) 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600 b) 27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG c) 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500 d) 26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG VCBLDU on METAR: blowing dust in the vicinity. RETS – Recent Thunderstorms RETSRA – Recent thunderstorms and rain shower Groups used for reporting weather phenomena of operational significance which were observed and reported in METAR message of present weather and are no longer observed. - Was heavy, now it is moderate, light or over; TAF: - Routine Forecast (TAF); - Amended Forecast (TAF AMD); - Corrected Forecast (TAF COR); TAF AMD – issued when the current TAF no longer adequately describes the ongoing weather; TAF COR – indicates that the message has been corrected due to formal mistakes; 102 103 104 METAR SBRP 051300Z 12006KT CAVOK 24/11 Q1021= TAF SBRP 050900Z 0512/0612 12005KT CAVOK TX30/0517Z TN14/0609Z PROB30 0516/0520 02005KT BECMG 0521/0523 17005KT BECMG 0601/0603 12005KT BECMG 0604/0606 09005KT RMK PHH= METAR SBGL 051300Z 33005KT 4500 HZ NSC 23/18 Q1020= TAF SBGL 050815Z 0512/0618 35005KT 6000 NSC TN18/0609Z TX32/0617Z PROB30 0512/0513 4000 BR FEW010 BECMG 0513/0515 04005KT 8000 BECMG 0516/0518 15010KT CAVOK BECMG 0520/0522 12010KT BECMG 0523/0601 02005KT 8000 NSC BECMG 0604/0606 35005KT 6000 PROB30 0606/0612 4000 BR BECMG 0612/0614 02005KT 8000 BECMG 0616/0618 15015KT CAVOK RMK PGS= METAR SBKP 061300Z 07005KT 7000 NSC 23/09 Q1021= TAF SBKP 060900Z 0612/0712 11005KT CAVOK TX27/0617Z TN15/0709Z BECMG 0612/0614 02007KT BECMG 0615/0617 32008KT FEW035 BECMG 0620/0622 22005KT CAVOK BECMG 0623/0701 13005KT BECMG 0701/0703 11007KT PROB30 0708/0710 6000 BECMG 0710/0712 10005KT RMK PHG= METAR SBCA 221200Z 18006KT 0100 FG VV000 21/20 Q1018= Visibilidade Vertical (2.3.66 – FCA105-3) Quando o céu estiver obscurecido, os detalhes da nebulosidade não puderem ser observados, mas com a visibilidade vertical disponível, será informado o grupo VVhshshs, onde hshshs é a visibilidade vertical em centenas de pés, informada até 600m(1200ft.). Quando as informações sobre a visibilidade vertical não estiverem disponíveis devido a uma falha no sensor ou sistema, será codificado VV///. VV003 – Visibilidade Vertical = 300ft./150m VV000 =menor que 50m. 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 HOW CLOUDS ARE FORMED For cloud formation to be possible, the following properties must exist: 1. Moisture present in the air. 2. A lifting action to cause a parcel of air to rise. The four main lifting actions are a. Convection b. Turbulence c. Frontal d. Orographic 3. Adiabatic cooling of the rising air. If a parcel of air containing water vapor is lifted sufficiently, it will cool adiabatically, and its capacity to hold water vapor will decrease (i.e., cooler air supports less water). Therefore, its relative humidity increases until the parcel of air cools to its dewpoint temperature, where its capacity to hold water vapor is equal to that which it is actually holding, and the parcel of air is said to be saturated (i.e., its relative humidity is 100 percent). Any further cooling will cause some of the water vapor to condense out of its vapor state as water droplets and form clouds. Further, if the air is unable to support these water droplets, then they will fall as precipitation in the form of rain, hail, or snow. 112 TEN BASIC CLOUD TYPES High Clouds HIGH CLOUDS CIRRUS (CI) Detached clouds in the form of white, delicate filaments, mostly white patches or narrow bands. They may have a fibrous (hair-like) and/or silky sheen appearance. Cirrus clouds are always composed of ice crystals, and their transparent character depends upon the degree of separation of the crystals. As a rule when these clouds cross the sun's disk they hardly diminish its brightness. Before sunrise and after sunset, cirrus is often colored bright yellow or red. These clouds are lit up long before other,clouds and fade out much later. CIRROSTRATUS (CS) Transparent, whitish veil clouds with a fibrous (hair-like) or smooth appearance. A sheet of cirrostratus which is very extensive, nearly always ends by covering the whole sky. A milky veil of fog (or thin Stratus) is distinguished from a veil of Cirrostratus of a similar appearance by the halo phenomena which the sun or the moon nearly always produces in a layer of cirrostratus. CIRROCUMULUS (CC) Thin, white patch, sheet, or layered of clouds without shading. They are composed of very small elements in the form of more or less regularly arranged grains or ripples. In general Cirrocumulus represents a degraded state of cirrus and cirrostratus both of which may change into it and is an uncommon cloud. There will be a connection with cirrus or cirrostratus and will show some characteristics of ice crystal clouds. 113 MID CLOUDS ALTOSTRATUS (AS) Gray or bluish cloud sheets or layers of striated or fibrous clouds that totally or partially covers the sky. They are thin enough to regularly reveal the sun as if seen through ground glass. Altostratus clouds do not produce a halo phenomenon nor are the shadows of objects on the ground visible. Sometime virga is seen hanging from Altostratus, and at times may even reach the ground causing very light precipitation. ALTOCUMULUS (AC) White and/or gray patch, sheet or layered clouds, generally composed of laminae (plates), rounded masses or rolls. They may be partly fibrous or diffuse. When the edge or a thin semitransparent patch of altocumulus passes in front of the sun or moon a corona appears. This colored ring has red on the outside and blue inside and occurs within a few degrees of the sun or moon. The most common mid cloud, more than one layer of Altocumulus often appears at different levels at the same time. Many times Altocumulus will appear with other cloud types. NIMBOSTRATUS (NS) The continuous rain cloud. Resulting from thickening Altostratus, This is a dark gray cloud layer diffused by falling rain or snow. It is thick enough throughout to blot out the sun. The cloud base lowers into the low level of clouds as precipitation continues. Also, low, ragged clouds frequently occur beneath this cloud which sometimes merges with its base. 114 LOW CLOUDS CUMULUS (CU) Detached, generally dense clouds and with sharp outlines that develop vertically in the form of rising mounds, domes or towers with bulging upper parts often resembling a cauliflower. The sunlit parts of these clouds are mostly brilliant white while their bases are relatively dark and horizontal. Over land cumulus develops on days of clear skies, and is due diurnal convection; it appears in the morning, grows, and then more or less dissolves again toward evening. STRATUS (ST) A generally gray cloud layer with a uniform base which may, if thick enough, produce drizzle, ice prisms, or snow grains. When the sun is visible through this cloud, its outline is clearly discernible. Often when a layer of Stratus breaks up and dissipates blue sky is seen. CUMULONIMBUS (CB) The thunderstorm cloud, this is a heavy and dense cloud in the form of a mountain or huge tower. The upper portion is usually smoothed, fibrous or striated and nearly always flattened in the shape of an anvil or vast plume. Under the base of this cloud which is often very dark, there are often low ragged clouds that may or may not merge with the base. They produce precipitation, which sometimes is in the form of virga. Cumulonimbus clouds also produce hail and tornadoes. 115 STRATOCUMULUS (SC) Gray or whitish patch, sheet, or layered clouds which almost always have dark tessellations (honeycomb appearance), rounded masses or rolls. Except for virga they are non-fibrous and may or may not be merged. They also have regularly arranged small elements with an apparent width of more than five degrees (three fingers - at arm's length). 116 MOUNTAIN WAVES: is defined as oscillations to the lee-side/leeward (downwind) of high ground resulting from the disturbance in the horizontal air flow caused by the high ground. The wavelength and amplitude of the oscillations depends on many factors including the height of the high ground relative to surrounding terrain, the wind speed and the instability of the atmosphere. Formation of mountain waves can occur in the following conditions: Wind direction within 30 degrees of the perpendicular to the ridge of high ground and no change in direction over a significant height band. Wind speeds at the crest of the ridge in excess of 15 kts, increasing with height. Stable air above the crest of the ridge with less stable air above and a stable layer below the ridge. Vertical currents within the oscillations can reach 2,000 ft/min. The combination of these strong vertical currents and surface friction may cause rotors to form beneath the mountain waves causing severe turbulence. Effects: Mountain Waves are associated with severe turbulence, strong vertical currents, and icing. Loss of Control and / or Level Bust. The vertical currents in the waves can make it difficult for an aircraft to maintain en route altitude leading to level busts and can cause significant fluctuations in airspeed potentially leading, in extremis, to loss of control. Loss of Control can also occur near to the ground prior to landing or after take-off with a risk of terrain contact or a hard landing if crew corrective response to a downdraft is not prompt. Turbulence. Aircraft can suffer structural damage as a result of encountering severe clear air turbulence. In extreme cases this can lead to the breakup of the aircraft. In even moderate turbulence, damage can occur to fittings within the aircraft especially as a result of collision with unrestrained items of cargo or passenger luggage. If caught unaware, passengers and crew walking around the aircraft cabin can be injured. Icing. Severe icing can be experienced within the clouds associated with the wave peaks Defences: Awareness. http://www.skybrary.aero/index.php/Level_Busthttp://www.skybrary.aero/index.php/Loss_of_Controlhttp://www.skybrary.aero/index.php/Clear_Air_Turbulencehttp://www.skybrary.aero/index.php/Turbulencehttp://www.skybrary.aero/index.php/Icing117 When approaching a mountain ridge, it is advantageous, if heading upwind towards it, to cross at an angle of around 30 - 45 degrees in order to allow an escape should downdrafts prove excessive. In the Alps regions, particularly in the Zurich – Milano regions, a general rule of thumb that a QNH difference of more than 5 – 8 mb between LSZH and LIMC, for example, or between north and south of the Alps, will provide for significant mountain wave activity over the Alps. A higher QNH in Zurich will result in mountain waves south of the Alps, for example. If significant mountain wave activity is expected, as a rule of thumb and if possible plan a flight at least 5000 – 8000 feet above the highest elevation along your route. Forecasting. Local knowledge of the conditions which tend to cause the formation of mountain waves enables forecasting of potential wave propagation. Cloud Formation. Lenticular Clouds (lens shaped clouds) can form in the crest of the mountain waves if the air is moist. Roll Clouds can also occur in the rotors below the waves if the air is moist. These clouds are a good indication of the presence of mountain waves but, if the air is dry, there may not be any cloud to see. Windward of the mountains IMC conditions may likely be present, whereas due to the “Foehn Effect” VMC conditions are generally expected to the leeward. Airflow rises over mountains due to orographic uplift and cools adiabatically. If it cools below its dewpoint temperature, then the water vapor will condense out and form clouds,,either as lenticular clouds, often on the hillside when there is a stable layer of air above the mountain, or as cumulus or even cumulonimbus clouds when there is unstable air above the mountain. Rotor, or roll, clouds, particularly common with lenticular cloud formation, also may form at a low level downstream of the mountain as a result of surface turbulence. Lenticular (lens-shaped) clouds indicate standing (mountain) wave clear air turbulence (CAT). They are found at height in rising air above the downwind side of a range of hills, often extending for up to 100 nautical miles downward of a line of hills and at a height of up to 25,000 ft. 118 OROGRAPHIC LIFT: The process by which a mass of air is lifted by a geographical feature such as a line of hills or a mountain range. When a moving Air Mass meets a geographical feature such as a mountain, some of the air will have no option but to rise up over it. This process is known as Orographic lift. If the rising air is moist, clouds will form. Windward slopes of a mountain range will therefore tend to have higher rainfall than the leeward side slopes of the mountain range OROGRAPHIC WIND: Wind flow caused, affected, or influenced by mountains. Orographic effects include both dynamic, in which mountains disturb or distort an existing approach flow, and thermodynamic, in which heating or cooling of mountain-slope surfaces generates flow. Orographic winds may give rise to the Föhn Effect. RADAR Knowledge of the radar principle is essential in order to accurately interpret the weather radar display. What does the radar detects? Water vapor/ vapor / water droplets What element a Radar has difficulties to detect? HAIL (GR) - Granizo Weather Radar Detection Capability: The weather radar only detects precipitation droplets (Figure below). How much it detects depends upon the size, composition and number of droplets. Water particles are five times more reflective than ice particles of the same size. The radar does detect: • Rainfall • Wet hail and wet turbulence • Ice crystals, dry hail and dry snow. However, these three elements give small reflections, as explained below. The radar does not detect: • Clouds, fog or wind (droplets are too small, or no precipitation at all) • Clear air turbulence (no precipitation) • Windshear (no precipitation except in microburst) • Sandstorms (solid particles are almost transparent to the radar beam) • Lightning. Reflectivity: Radar echo returns are proportional to droplet size, and therefore, precipitation intensity. Droplets that are too small (fog droplets) will return no echo, whereas heavy droplets (thunderstorm droplets) will return the majority of radar waves (Figure below). http://www.skybrary.aero/index.php/Cloudhttp://www.skybrary.aero/index.php/F%C3%B6hn_Effect119 Reflectivity of precipitation not only depends on the intensity of the precipitation, but also on the type of precipitation. Precipitation that contains water will return a stronger return than dry precipitation. Dry hail, for example, will reflect far less than wet hail (Figure 5). The upper level of a thunderstorm, that contains ice crystals, provides weaker returns than the middle part, that is full of water or wet hail. It is important to note that reflectivity of particles is not directly proportional to the hazard that may be encountered in a cell. Air can be very humid, when close to the sea for instance. In this case, thermal convection will produce clouds that are full of water. These clouds will have a high reflectivity, but will not necessarily be a high threat. On the other hand, there are equatorial overland regions where converging winds produce large scale uplifts of dry air. The resulting weather cells have much less reflectivity than mid-latitude convective cells, making them much harder to detect. However turbulence in or above such clouds may have a higher intensity than indicated by the image on the weather radar display. Similarly, snow flakes have low reflectivity, as long as they are above freezing level. As they descend through freezing level, snowflakes stick together and become water covered. Their reflectivity increases and the weather radar display may display amber or red cells, despite the fact that there is no threat. Attenuation: Because the weather radar display depends on signal returns, heavy precipitation may conceal even stronger weather: The major part of the signal is reflected by the frontal part of the precipitation. The aft part returns weak signals, that are displayed as green or black areas. The flight crew may interpret these as a no/small threat areas. Modern weather radars are now able to apply a correction to a signal when it is 120 suspected to have been attenuated behind a cloud. This reduces the attenuation phenomenon. However, a black hole behind a red area on a weather radar display should always be considered as a zone that is potentially very active. Despite this attenuation correction function, the weather radar should not be used as a tool to penetrate, or navigate around, areas that are displayed as severe. The weather radar should only be considered as a tool to be used for weather avoidance. ZCIT (ITCZ): INTER-TROPICAL CONVERGENCE ZONE Faixa de nuvens com grande desenvolvimento vertical (CB), frequente de tempestades (circunda o globo próximo ao Equador). The intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) is where converging air masses meet near the thermal equator. Like the thermal equator, ITCZ movement is a function of seasonal heating that is much greater over the land than over the sea. Over South America and southern Africa, ITCZ movement is large, especially in the summer season, whereas over the Atlantic Ocean, its movement is small. In other words, it is stable. Effect of the ITCZ determines the weather pattern over a significant portion of the globe. The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone, or ITCZ, is a belt of low pressure which circles the Earth generally near the equator where the trade winds of the Northern and Southern Hemispheres come together. It is characterized by convective activity which generates often vigorous thunderstorms over large areas. It is most active over continental land masses by day and relatively less active over the oceans. The position of the ITCZ varies with the seasons, and lags behind the sun's relative position above the Earth's surface by about 1 to 2 months, and correlates generally to the thermal equator. Since water has a higher heat capacity than land, the ITCZ propagates pole ward more prominently over land than over water, and over the Northern Hemisphere than over the Southern Hemisphere. In July and August, over the Atlantic and Pacific, the ITCZ is between 5 and 15 degrees north of the Equator, but further north over the land masses of Africa and Asia. In eastern Asia, the ITCZ may propagate up to 30 degrees north of the Equator. In January, over the Atlantic, the ITCZ generally sits no further south than the Equator, but extends much further south over South America, Southern Africa, and Australia. Over land, the ITCZ tends to follow the sun's zenith point. Where the trade winds are weak, the ITCZ is characterized by isolated Cumulus (Cu) and Cumulonimbus (Cb) cells. However, where the trade winds are stronger, the ITCZ can spawn a solid line of active Cb cells embedded with other cloud types developing as a result of instability at higher levels. Cb tops can reach and sometimes exceed an altitude of 55,000 feet, and the ITCZ can be as wide as 300 nautical miles in places presenting a formidable obstacle to aircraft transit. Aircraft flying through an active ITCZ (strong trade winds) will probably encounter some or all the hazards associated with Cb clouds such as icing, turbulence, lightning, and wind shear. However, it is in this zone that the most severe effects may often be,encountered. In particular, it is within the ITCZ that convective breakthroughs of the tropopause often occur, with the majority occurring over land, especially in the second half of each day. Convective penetration of the tropopause is less common over oceanic areas where the phenomenon is more likely to occur in the early hours of each day, generating more isolated cells. Research sponsored by NASA has shown that 1% of tropical deep convective activity exceeds 46,000 ft altitude, with a small proportion of this reaching much greater heights. For further information on the potential hazards of transit through or near Cb cloud, see the article Cumulonimbus. Hemisfério Norte: ventos alíseos NE SW Hemisfério Sul: ventos alíseos SE NW ZCIT é formada pelo movimento vertical em grande parte derivado da atividade convectiva de tempestades provocadas pelo aquecimento solar (sugam o ar). Posição mais ao Norte durante o verão do Hemisfério Norte e mais ao Sul durante o mês de Abril. Se move de um lado para outro do Equador, seguindo o Ponto Zenital (ZENITH) do sol. http://www.skybrary.aero/index.php/Trade_Windshttp://www.skybrary.aero/index.php/Cumulushttp://www.skybrary.aero/index.php/Cumulonimbushttp://www.skybrary.aero/index.php/Icinghttp://www.skybrary.aero/index.php/Turbulencehttp://www.skybrary.aero/index.php/Lightninghttp://www.skybrary.aero/index.php/Wind_Shearhttp://www.skybrary.aero/index.php/Tropopausehttp://www.skybrary.aero/index.php/NASAhttp://www.skybrary.aero/index.php/Cumulonimbus121 MERIDIANS: from Pole to Pole; (LATITUDE) PARALLELS: from East – West; (LONGITUDE) The great circle defining the meridian is divided into the local meridian (containing the zenith and terminated by the celestial poles) and the anti-meridian (opposite half containing nadir). Great Circle Track: line of shortest distance between 2 points on a sphere (or flat surface) with a constantly changing track direction as a result of convergence. What is a rhumb line? Rhumb lines are tracks with a constant track direction between two points on a sphere and therefore must be a longer distance than a great circle track. What is convergency? Convergency represents the change of direction experienced along east-west tracks, except rhumb lines, as a result of the way direction is measured due to the effects of converging meridians at the poles. The change of direction experienced between two points is known as convergency. Convergency is clearly dependent on latitude; it is zero at the equator, where the meridians are parallel, and a maximum at the poles, where the meridians converge. It is also dependent on how far you travel. A short distance traveled will have only a small change of direction, whereas a long distance will have a large change of direction.
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